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Code d'Examen: A00-202

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS advanced programming exam)

Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV.
D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data = sales tagsort; by month year; run; Which of
the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s where p.item = c.item and p.item = s.item; quit;
B. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item =
cost.item and product.item = sales.item; quit;
C. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product as p, cost as c, sales as s where p.item = c.item
and p.item = s.item; quit;
D. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item; quit;
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data set
stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
Answer: B

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NO.5 The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A: A Frequency 1 500,000
2 500,000 6 7,000,000
3,000 Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new; set temp; if a = 8 then b = 'Small '; else if a in(1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
B. data new; set temp; if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b = 'Small'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
C. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large '; else if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b =
'Small';
D. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large ';
if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Small'; run;
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
A. SIZE=
B. BUFNO=
C. BUFSIZE=
D. PAGESIZE=
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE REP COST
SMITH
200
SMITH
400
JONES
100
SMITH 600
JONES
100
JONES
200
JONES
400
SMITH
800
JONES
100
JONES 300
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE from one group by
rep having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AVERAGE
JONES 200
B. REP AVERAGE
JONES 320
C. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 320
D. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 500
Answer: D

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NO.8 The following SAS program is submitted: data one; do i = 1 to 10; ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs); set
temp point = ptobs nobs = totobs; output; end; stop; run; The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000
observations. Which one of the following represents the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C

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NO.9 The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below: ONE TWO # Variable Type
Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos 2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8 1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16 1
year Num 8 0 Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both
data sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted: data three;
merge one two; by year; run; Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
Answer: B

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NO.10 The following SAS program is submitted: <insert statement here>; %let development = ontime; proc
print data = sasuser.highway; title "For &dept"; title2 "This project was completed &development"; run;
Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to "For
research&development"?
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C

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NO.11 Given the following SAS statement: %let idcode = Prod567; Which one of the following statements
stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C

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NO.12 The following SAS code is submitted: %macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH); data &dsn; set
sasuser.houses; if style = "&sub"; run; %mend; %houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch) %houses(sub = TWOSTORY) Which one of the following is the value of the
automatic macro variable SYSLAST?
A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
C. WORK.RANCH
D. WORK.HOUSES
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO NUM COUNTRY NUM CITY
______________ ______________
1 CANADA 3
BERLIN
2
FRANCE 5
TOKYO
3 GERMANY 4 BELGIUM
5 JAPAN
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select country from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY
GERMANY JAPAN
B. COUNTRY FRANCE BELGIUM
C. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE BELGIUM
D. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE GERMANY
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 ] 2002 1 700 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two
where one.year = two.year; quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: C

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NO.15 The following SAS program is submitted: data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4); set old; run; Which one
of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and BUFNO= options?
A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE NUM VAR
1. 2 B 3C Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql; delete table one; quit;
B. proc sql; alter table one drop num, var; quit;
C. proc sql; drop table one; quit;
D. proc sql; delete from one; quit;
Answer: C

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NO.18 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR
SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two; quit; Which one of
the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: D

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NO.19 Consider the following SAS log: 229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses; 231 if style = 'RANCH' then output sasuser.ranch; 232 else if style = 'CONDO'
then output sasuser.condo; 233 run; NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH. NOTE: A
stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system. 234 235 proc print data =
sasuser.condo; ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist. 236 run; NOTE: The SAS System
stopped processing this step because of errors. Which one of the following explains why the PRINT
procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D

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NO.20 The following SAS program is submitted: %let value = 9; %let value2 = 5; %let newval = %eval(&value
/ &value2); Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1.8
D. null
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: A00-281

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Certified Clinical Trials Programmer Using SAS 9 Accelerated Version )

Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
The following question will ask you to provide a line of missing code.
The following program is submitted to output observations from data set ONE that have more than one
record per patient.
In the space below, enter the line of code that will correctly complete the program (Case is ignored. Do not
add leading or trailing spaces to your answer.).
Answer: BYSUBJID; BYSUBJID;

NO.2 The following SAS program is submitted:
You want to store all calculated means and standard deviations in one SAS data set.
Which statement must be added to the program?
A. output mean std;
B. ods output mean=m1 m2 std=s1 s2;
C. output out=WORK.RESULTS mean=m1 m2 std=s1 s2;
D. ods output out=WORK.RESULTS mean=m1 m2 std=s1 s2;
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given the data set WORK.BP with the following variable list:
Which output will be created by the program? A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

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NO.4 Given the following data set: Which program was used to prepare the data for this PROC PRINT
output?
A.proc sort data=one out=two;
by subjid;
run;
B. proc sort data=one out=two nodupkey;
by subjid;
run;
C. proc sort data=one out=two nodup;
by subjid;
run;
D. proc sort data=one out=two nodupkey;
by subjid trt;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.5 What information can be found in the SAS Dictionary tables? (Choose two.)
A. datasets contained within a specified library
B. values contained within a specified format
C. variables contained within a specified dataset
D. values contained within a specified variable
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data=SASUSER.VISIT out=PSORT;
by code descending date cost;
run;
Which statement is true regarding the submitted program?
A. The descending option applies to the variable CODE.
B. The variable CODE is sorted by ascending order.
C. The PSORT data set is stored in the SASUSER library.
D. The descending option applies to the DATE and COST variables.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Review the following procedure format:
What is the required type of data for the variable in this procedure?
A. Character
B. Continuous
C. Categorical
D. Treatment
Answer: B

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NO.8 Given the following data at WORK DEMO:
Which SAS program prints only the first 5 males in this order from the data set?
A. proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
B. proc print data=WORK.DEMO(obs=5);
where Sex='M';
run;
C. proc print data=WORK.DEMO(where=(sex='M'));
where obs<=5;
run;
D. proc sort data=WORK.DEMO out=out;
by sex descending;
run;
proc print data= out (obs=5);
run;
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which SAS program will apply the data set label 'Demographics' to the data set named DEMO.?
A. data demo (label='Demographics');
set demo;
run;
B. data demo;
set demo (label='Demographics');
run;
C. data demo (label 'Demographics');
set demo;
run;
D. data demo;
set demo;
label demo= 'Demographics';
run;
Answer: A

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NO.10 This question will ask you to provide a line of missing code.
The following SAS program is submitted: Which statement is required to produce this output?
A. TABLES site*group /nocol;
B. TABLES site*group /norow;
C. TABLES site*group;
D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;D. TABLES site*group /nocol norow;
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which program will report all created output objects in the log?
A. proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1 ods=trace;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
B. ods trace on;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
C. ods trace=log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
D. ods trace log;
proc ttest data=WORK.DATA1;
class TREAT;
var RESULTS;
run;
Answer: B

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NO.12 You want 90% confidence limits for a binomial proportion from a one-way table with PROC FREQ.
Which option must you add to the TABLES statement?
A. BINOMIAL
B. BINOMIAL ALPHA=0.9
C. BINOMIAL ALPHA=90
D. BINOMIAL ALPHA=0.1
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the following data set:
Which SAS program produced this output?
A. proc sort data=one(where=(age>50)) out=two;
by subjid;
run;
B. proc sort data=one(if=(age>50)) out=two;
by subjid;
run;
C. proc sort data=one out=two;
where=(age>50);
by subjid;
run;
D. proc sort data=one out=two;
if age>50;
by subjid;
run;
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement correctly adds a label to the data set?
A. DATA two Label="Subjects having duplicate observations";
set one;
run;
B. DATA two;
Label="Subjects having duplicate observations";
set one;
run;
C. DATA two;
set one;
Label dataset="Subjects having duplicate observations";
run;
D. DATA two(Label="Subjects having duplicate observations");
set one;
run;
Answer: D

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NO.15 The following output is displayed: Which SAS program created this output?
A. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA; tables gender * answer / nocol norow nopercent; run;
B. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA; tables answer * gender / nocol norow nopercent; run;
C. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables gender * answer / nocol norow nopercent missing;
run;
D. proc freq data=WORK.TESTDATA;
tables answer * gender / nocol norow nopercent missing;
run;
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ES0-006

Nom d'Examen: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Service Orchestration Exam)

Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 The operation lifecycle of a service consists of three phases. Which phases are these?
A. Context, Content, Security
B. Qualification, Delivery, Return
C. Automation, Provisioning, Orchestration
D. Composition, Administration, Security
Answer: B

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NO.2 An XP machine with the German version of Windows XP is connecting to the Orchestration Service. In
which language will the client start up?
A. German
B. English
C. French
D. Dutch
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has configured several modules and run books in Automation Manager to install
applications unattended. The administrator wants that users can request these applications themselves
via Service Orchestration The administrator has already installed the Console. Datastore and Web Client
How can the administrator link the Orchestration Service to Automation Manager.?
A. In Automation Manager, go to the Interaction tab and configure the Orchestration Service pluguin
B. In the Orchestration Console, go to Setup > Datastore and select an Automation Manager environment
C. In the Transaction Engine, select an Automation Manager dispatcher.
D. In the Catalog Service, select the Automation Manager Integration tab and select "enable "
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1K0-002

Nom d'Examen: Polycom (CVE-2)

Questions et réponses: 263 Q&As

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NO.1 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.2 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.3 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.5 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

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NO.8 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

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NO.10 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.12 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.13 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

Polycom   1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002 examen

NO.19 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.20 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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Oracle 1Z0-007, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-007

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL)

Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which three subqueries work? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT *
FROM employees
where salary > (SELECT MIN(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
B.SELECT *
FROM employees
WHERE salary = (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
C.SELECT distinct department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
D.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
E.SELECT last_name
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT MAX(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
F.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY AVG(SALARY));
Answer: CDE

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NO.2 Which two are attributes of iSQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A.iSQL*Plus commands cannot be abbreviated.
B.iSQL*Plus commands are accessed from a browser.
C.iSQL*Plus commands are used to manipulate data in tables.
D.iSQL*Plus commands manipulate table definitions in the database.
E.iSQL*Plus is the Oracle proprietary interface for executing SQL statements.
Answer: BE

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NO.3 You need to design a student registration database that contains several tables storing academic
information.
The STUDENTS table stores information about a student. The STUDENT_GRADES table stores
information about the student's grades. Both of the tables have a column named STUDENT_ID. The
STUDENT_ID column in the STUDENTS table is a primary key.
You need to create a foreign key on the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENT_GRADES table that
points to the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENTS table. Which statement creates the foreign key?
A.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk REFERENCES (student_id)
FOREIGN KEY students(student_id));
B.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
C.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
D.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007   1Z0-007 examen

NO.4 In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: CDE

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.5 Which SQL statement defines a FOREIGN KEY constraint on the DEPTNO column of the EMP table?
A.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk FOREIGN KEY deptno
REFERENCES dept deptno);
B.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2)
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
C.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno)
FOREIGN KEY (deptno));
D.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) FOREIGN KEY
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.7 The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:
STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students' grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest
grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by
the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F

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NO.8 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.employee_id, (.15* e.salary) + (.5 * e.commission_pct)
+ (s.sales_amount * (.35 * e.bonus)) AS CALC_VALUE
FROM employees e, sales s
WHERE e.employee_id = s.emp_id;
What will happen if you remove all the parentheses from the calculation?
A.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be lower.
B.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be higher.
C.There will be no difference in the value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column.
D.An error will be reported.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about constraints? (Choose two.)
A.The UNIQUE constraint does not permit a null value for the column.
B.A UNIQUE index gets created for columns with PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints.
C.The PRIMARY KEY and FOREIGN KEY constraints create a UNIQUE index.
D.The NOT NULL constraint ensures that null values are not permitted for the column.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.selection, projection, join
B.difference, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: A

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NO.11 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states "Dear Customer customer_name, ".
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the CUSTOMERS table.
Which statement produces this output?
A.SELECT dear customer, customer_name,
B.SELECT "Dear Customer", customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
C.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name ','
FROM customers;
D.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
E.SELECT "Dear Customer " || customer_name || ","
FROM customers;
F.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ',' ||
FROM customers;
Answer: D

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NO.12 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee. Which change must be made to the above
syntax to calculate the annual compensation as "monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied
by 12"?
A.No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema's tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: CE

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NO.14 Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A.SELECT ename, salary*12 'Annual Salary'
FROM employees;
B.SELECT ename, salary*12 "Annual Salary"
FROM employees;
C.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary
FROM employees;
D.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP("ANNUAL SALARY")
FROM employees
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which three statements correctly describe the functions and use of constraints? (Choose three.)
A.Constraints provide data independence.
B.Constraints make complex queries easy.
C.Constraints enforce rules at the view level.
D.Constraints enforce rules at the table level.
E.Constraints prevent the deletion of a table if there are dependencies.
F.Constraints prevent the deletion of an index if there are dependencies.
Answer: CDE

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NO.16 Which view should a user query to display the columns associated with the constraints on a table
owned by the user?
A.USER_CONSTRAINTS
B.USER_OBJECTS
C.ALL_CONSTRAINTS
D.USER_CONS_COLUMNS
E.USER_COLUMNS
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-007 examen   1Z0-007 examen   1Z0-007

NO.17 Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.18 A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1. Choose rows from a table.
2. Choose columns from a table.
3. Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A.difference, projection, join
B.selection, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-007 examen   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.19 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of
different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)
E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007   certification 1Z0-007

NO.20 What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?
A.creates a view with constraints
B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints
C.creates a view in another schema even if you don't have privileges
D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-403

Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Enterprise Linux System Administration)

Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 To find the value of the DISPLAY environment variable, you issue the following command:
[rooot@server1]#echo $DISPLAY
0
[rooot@server1]#
What do you interpret from the environment variable's value?
A. Graphical applications would make a local UNIX socket connection.
B. Graphical applications would make a remote UNIX socket connection.
C. Graphical applications would make the first network connection to TCP port 6001.
D. Graphical applications would make the second network connection to TCP port 6000.
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.2 The organization you work for wants to set up a new machine with Oracle Enterprise Linux and has
three requirements:
1. The filesystem should be consistent.
2: The old data should not reappear in the files after an unclean shutdown.
3: The filesystem data should be written to the disk before metadata.
In order to meet these requirements, you have set the ext3 journaling mode as data=writeback.
Which requirements have you met?
A. only 1
B. only 2
C. only 3
D. both 1and 3
E. both 2 and 3
F. both 1 and 2
G. All the three requirements are met.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.3 While importing user accounts in bulk along with passwords using the newusers command, you noticed
that user passwords are saved in the /etc/shadow file in the crypt format.
How would you enable the newusers command to use the preferred MD5 format when writing passwords
to the /etc/shadow file?
A. Add the MD5_ENAB=yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
B. Add the MD5_CRYPT yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
C. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
D. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/security/limits.conf file.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.4 You work for XYZ organization and are setting up a new Linux box. The organization wants the user's
data on the system to be safe even in the event of a crash of the root filesystem.
Which step do you think would help the administrator achieve the organization's objective?
A. Have /opt directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
B. Have /home directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
C. Have /var directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
D. Have /usr directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.5 You are in runlevel 5 working at the tty1 terminal on server1. To configure the gdm display manager,
you issue the following command but this results in an error as shown below:
[root@server1]#gdmsetup
(gdmsetup:6326): Gtk-WARNING **: cannot open display:
What could be the reason for the error?
A. The /etc/inittab file is corrupted.
B. The Xserver on the system is not running.
C. The xfs service is not running on the system.
D. The runlevel in the /etc/inittab file is missing.
E. The command only works in a graphical environment.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.6 Match the following scripts and their applicability:
1. ./.xinitrc a) applies if X is started directly, or if ./.xsession does not exist and X is started viaa display
manager
2) ./.xsession b) applies when X is started directly
3) ./.Xclients c) applies when X is started from a display manager
A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
D. 1-a, 2-c, 2-b
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403

NO.7 Which three statements are true about the Linux swap file system? (Choose three.)
A. The Linux user data cannot be written to the Linux swap space.
B. High-priority swap spaces would be exhausted only after exhausting swap spaces with equal priorities.
C. The Linux kernel code and data are not swappable and are never moved to swap file system from
physical memory.
D. If too much space is allocated for swap, errant programs may run for an extended time and use up
RAM and swap space.
E. When most of the system's real memory is in use, and there is a need for more, some data would be
moved into the swap file system to free real RAM memory for use by applications or for kernel use, such
as for driver buffers, files, or network packets.
Answer: CDE

certification Oracle   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.8 As an administrator, you execute the following command to verify the integrity of mysql:
[root@server1]#rpm -Va mysql
S.5....T c /etc/my.cnf
What attributes of the /etc/my.cnf file have changed?
A. The permissions, user ownership, and file type have changed.
B. The permissions, group ownership, and file type have changed.
C. The user ownership, group ownership, and file type have changed.
D. The MD5 signature, file size, and modification time have changed.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403

NO.9 The user smith executed the mozilla command, located in /usr/bin and owned by the root user.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. When mozilla needs to access certain files, the access would be determined by root's permissions.
B. When started by smith, smith would own the initial mozilla program and all processes started by the
initial process.
C. When mozilla needs to access certain files, the access would be determined by smith's permissions
and not by root's.
D. When started by the user smith, the user smith would own the initial mozilla program and all processes
started by the initial process would be owned by the system user associated with mozilla.
Answer: BC

certification Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.10 You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux in the Graphical User Interface (GUI) mode on your
machine. From the package selection screen, you select one of the package groups.
Which two statements are NOT true in this context? (Choose two.)
A. Only the optional packages would be installed.
B. All the optional packages are also installed along with the package group.
C. Both the base packages and all the optional packages would be installed.
D. The selection of a base package does not depend on an optional package.
E. Only the base packages and the auto-selected optional packages would be installed.
Answer: AB

Oracle examen   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403

NO.11 You are currently working in runlevel 3. The X server is configured correctly and the default runlevel is
set to 5 in the /etc/inittab file. To find the default desktop you issue the following command:
[root@server1]#cat /etc/sysconfig/desktop
[root@server1]#
You find the file empty. What will be the effect when you try to go to the runlevel 5?
A. The system defaults to kdm and launch KDE.
B. The system defaults to xdm and launch GNOME.
C. The system defaults to gdm and launch GNOME
D. The system will fail to log into the graphical mode.
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.12 You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux on a machine and are at the stage of swap filesystem
creation. You want to ensure that swap contains twice the amount of RAM available in the system but do
not know the total available memory.
You can use the free command but do not have a prompt to execute the command. Which key
combination would take you to a command prompt?
A. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F2]
B. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F3]
C. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F4]
D. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F1]
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.13 You have bound your system to the Network Information Service (NIS) domain ORACLE and all
client-side configurations are done. The users report a problem that they are not able to log in through
NIS accounts, whereas local users are successfully authenticated, after the system reboots.
As a Linux administrator, you executed the nisdomainname command and you get the output "(none)",
and no traces of yp are found in the /var/log/messages file.
What would you do to resolve this error? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Re-create the NIS domain on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
B. Restart the ypserv service on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
C. Restart the network service on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
D. Use the chkconfig command to set the ypbind service to be on at the desired runlevels.
E. Use the ntsysv command to select the ypbind service to be automatically started with the desired
runlevels.
Answer: DE

Oracle   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.14 You want to configure the display login program to display the face browser of user accounts for
system logon.
Which two display managers support this feature? (Choose two.)
A. gdm
B. kdm
C. twm
D. xdm
Answer: AB

certification Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403 examen

NO.15 You have the default syslogd configuration in your system. You plugged in a USB keydrive into the
system.
Which command would help you to find the bus and the device number of the keydrive?
A. lsusb
B. lsmod
C. insmod
D. cat /proc/self/mounts
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.16 Being the system administrator for XYZ corporation, you have been given the task of setting up a new
Linux box.
The new machine has to meet the following criteria:
1. There should be a provision for expanding one filesystem without affecting the other filesystems.
2: The user data should be safe in the event of root file system crash.
3: The filesystems should support journaling.
Which three actions must you take to meet all the requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Use ext3 as the filesystem.
B. Use ext2 as the filesystem.
C. Have the /usr/ directory on its own filesystem.
D. Have the /home/ directory on its own filesystem.
E. Separate the directory structure across multiple partitions.
Answer: ADE

Oracle   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.17 You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux in the Graphical User Interface(GUI) mode on your machine
and are at the package group selection panel. You do not want to customize the packages to be installed.
Therefore, select the option "install default software packages."
Which three packages would be in the default selection group? (Choose three.)
A. GNOME
B. Webserver
C. System Tools
D. Printer Support
E. Windows File Server (SMB)
Answer: ABE

Oracle   certification 1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.18 During the installation of Oracle Enterprise Linux, you want to customize the packages to be installed.
You select one of the package groups that has both base and optional packages.
Which statement about the packages is true?
A. Only the optional packages would be installed.
B. All the base packages and the optional packages would be installed.
C. The selection of a base package does not depend on an optional package.
D. Only the base packages and the auto selected optional packages would be installed.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.19 You have written a udev rule as shown below:
KERNEL=="fb[0-9]*", NAME="fb/%n", SYMLINK+="%k", GROUP="video"
KERNEL=="fd[0-9]*", OWNER="john"
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The user john would own all the floppy devices.
B. The user john would own all the floppy and frame buffer devices.
C. The video group on the system would own all the floppy devices.
D. The video group on the system could be controlled by john only.
E. The video group on the system would own all the frame buffer devices.
Answer: AE

certification Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.20 The system you logged in is running in runlevel 5. You want to customize X and want to have a
consistent environment regardless of how X is started.
Which step is recommended?
A. Delete the ~/.Xclients file and use the ~/.xinitrc file.
B. Delete ~/.Xclients and ~/.xsession and use the ~/.xinitrc file.
C. Delete ~/.xinitrc and ~/.xsession and use the ~/.Xclients file.
D. Delete ~/.xinitrc and ~/.Xclients and use the ~/.xsession file.
E. Delete the ~/.Xclients file and use both ~/.xinitrc and ~/.xsession files.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.21 You want to install the ieee80211 module on your Linux system. While building the module, you receive
the following error:
Make [2]: *** [ieee 80211-1.2.17/ieee80211_module.o] Error 1
Make [1]: *** [_module_/ieee80211-1.2.17] Error 2
Make [1]: Leaving directory '/usr/src/kernels/2.6.9-42.0.0.0.1.EL-i686'
Make: *** [modules] Error 2
What do you infer from this error?
A. The ieee80211 module conflicts with the current kernel version.
B. The dependency modules for ieee80211 are not installed on the system.
C. The ieee80211 module given is not supported by the machine architecture.
D. The kernel source package, which must be installed to compile external device drivers, is not installed
on the system.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.22 You have a /dev/md1 redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array on your system as shown
below:
[root@server1 ~]# cat /proc/mdstat
Personalities : [raid 5]
md1 : active raid5 sdd1[3] sdc1[1] sdb1[0]
594176 blocks level 5, 64k chunk, algorithm 2 [3/2] [UU_]
unused devices:
The /dev/md1 RAID array is mounted on /data. You issued the command:
mdadm --fail /dev/md1 /dev/sdc1 /dev/sdb1
Which statements are true about the RAID array after you issue this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The kernel would report a Buffer I/O error on the RAID device /dev/md1.
B. The RAID array would be destroyed but the data could be recovered from the RAID disks.
C. The RAID array would be completely destroyed including the super block of the file system.
D. The RAID array could be reconstructed using new RAID partitions that synchronize with the /dev/sdd1
disk partition.
Answer: AC

Oracle   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403

NO.23 You are logged in to server1 and want to allow remote connections to server1 through X Display
Manager Control Protocol (XDMCP). You change the entry "Enable=false" to "Enable=true" in the
"[xdmcp]" section of the gdm.conf configuration file.
To test the XDMCP configuration, you log in to station1 as smith and try to connect to server1 by using the
following command:
[smith@station1]$ X -query server1.example.com :1
What is the result?
A. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct
XDMCP.
B. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct
XDMCP.
C. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect
XDMCP.
D. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect
XDMCP.
Answer: A

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NO.24 You want to make Oracle Enterprise Linux coexist with Microsoft Windows on your machine. You
install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the default boot loader configuration and then install Microsoft
WindowsXP. You reboot the system after installation and the system boots directly into the Windows
operating system without showing the Grand Unified Boot Loader (GRUB) menu.
Which two steps could you have taken to avoid this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader on MBR and then install Microsoft WindowsXP.
B. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader on
Master Boot Record (MBR).
C. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader at the
first sector of the /boot partition.
D. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader at the first sector of the /boot partition and then
install Microsoft WindowsXP.
Answer: BC

Oracle   1Z1-403 examen   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403

NO.25 You have server1 configured as the Virtual Network Computing (VNC) server. There is no firewall
between server1 and station1. You have logged on to station1 as root and want to connect to server1
using VNC. You issue the following command:
[root@station1]# vncviewer server1.2
Which statement is true?
A. server1 provides an encrypted connection to station1.
B. The xinetd service on station1 is not mandatory for the VNC connection.
C. The desktop of server1 is shared with station1 without prompting for a password.
D. station1 is prompted for a password and the desktop of server1 is shared with station1 only when the
correct password is entered.
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403

NO.26 You are downloading a text file from the Web into a directory on an ext2 filesystem. The system crash
after the data blocks are written onto the disk but before the metadata is written.
What is the status of the file after this transaction?
A. The file contents can be seen only using the cat command.
B. The file can be accessed using only the vi editor and does not require to be repaired using fsck.
C. The file cannot be accessed and must be repaired using fsck inorder to access the file contents.
D. The file contents can be accessed using only the emacs text editor and does not require to be repaired
using fsck .
Answer: C

certification Oracle   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403 examen

NO.27 You have trouble in booting the Linux system and want to troubleshoot it. To find the cause, you want to
make the kernel start the bash program in place of init.
What would you do to achieve this objective? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Pass S as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
B. Pass 1 as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
C. Pass init=/bin/bash as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
D. Pass INIT=/sbin/bash as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z1-403   1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.28 Which two statements are true about an X server? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple X servers can be run on the same host.
B. The first X server on a remote host listens on port 6000.
C. The first X server on a remote host listens on port 6001.
D. Only a single X server can run on a machine at any given point of time.
Answer: AB

Oracle examen   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.29 Which two statements correctly define Virtual Network Computing (VNC)? (Choose two.)
A. It is a client/server application.
B. It does not provide any protection to remote X connections.
C. It allows entire desktops to be displayed and controlled remotely.
D. It is used to connect to a remote Linux machine only from a Linux machine.
Answer: AC

certification Oracle   1Z1-403 examen   1Z1-403   certification 1Z1-403   1Z1-403

NO.30 Identify two true statements about Virtual Network Computing (VNC). (Choose two.)
A. It is a client/server application.
B. It allows entire desktops to be displayed remotely.
C. It does not provide any protection to remote X connections.
D. It allows applications to be run remotely and displayed only locally.
E. It is used to connect to a remote Linux machine only from a Linux machine.
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: 310-065

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform. SE6.0)

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Code d'Examen: 310-502

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 System.out.println(x);

NO.2 }

NO.3 }
What is the result?
A. 4321
B. 0000
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 18.
Answer: D

certification SUN   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
12. Given:
11. public class Rainbow {
12. public enum MyColor {
13 RED(0xff0000), GREEN(0x00ff00), BLUE(0x0000ff);
14. private final int rgb;
15. MyColor(int rgb) { this.rgb = rgb; }
16. public int getRGB() { return rgb; }
17. };
18. public static void main(String[] args) {
19. // insert code here
20. }
21. }
Which code fragment, inserted at line 19, allows the Rainbow class to compile?
A. MyColor skyColor = BLUE;
B. MyColor treeColor = MyColor.GREEN;
C. if(RED.getRGB() < BLUE.getRGB()) { }
D. Compilation fails due to other error(s) in the code.
E. MyColor purple = new MyColor(0xff00ff);
F. MyColor purple = MyColor.BLUE + MyColor.RED;
Answer: B

SUN   310-065 examen   certification 310-065   certification 310-065
13. Given:
11. class Mud {
12. // insert code here
13. System.out.println("hi");
14 }
15. }
And the following five fragments:
public static void main(String...a) {
public static void main(String.* a) {
public static void main(String... a) {
public static void main(String[]... a) {
public static void main(String...[] a) {
How many of the code fragments, inserted independently at line 12, compile?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Answer: D

SUN   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
14. Given:
5. class Atom {
6. Atom() { System.out.print("atom "); }
7. }
8. class Rock extends Atom {
9. Rock(String type) { System.out.print(type); }
10. }
11. public class Mountain extends Rock {
12. Mountain() {
13. super("granite ");
14. new Rock("granite ");
15. }
16. public static void main(String[] a) { new Mountain(); }
17. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. atom granite
C. granite granite
D. atom granite granite
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. atom granite atom granite
Answer: F

SUN   310-065 examen   310-065   310-065
15. Given:
1. interface TestA { String toString(); }
2. public class Test {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. System.out.println(new TestA() {
5. public String toString() { return "test"; }
6. });
7. }
8. }
What is the result?
A. test
B. null
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 1.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
Answer:A

SUN examen   310-065   310-065
16. Given:
11. public static void parse(String str) {
12. try {
13. float f = Float.parseFloat(str);
14. } catch (NumberFormatException nfe) {
15. f = 0;
16. } finally {
17 System.out.println(f);
18. }
19. }
20. public static void main(String[] args) {
21. parse("invalid");
22. }
What is the result?
A. 0.0
B. Compilation fails.
C. A ParseException is thrown by the parse method at runtime.
D. A NumberFormatException is thrown by the parse method at runtime.
Answer: B

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17. Given:
1. public class Blip {
2. protected int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Vert extends Blip {
5. // insert code here
6. }
Which five methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile? (Choose five.)
A. public int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
B. private int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
C. private int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected long blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
E. protected int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
F. protected long blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
G. protected long blipvert(int x, int y) { return 0; }
Answer: ACEFG

SUN examen   certification 310-065   310-065   310-065 examen
18. Given:
1. class Super {
2. private int a;
3. protected Super(int a) { this.a = a; }
4. } ...
11. class Sub extends Super {
12. public Sub(int a) { super(a); }
13. public Sub() { this.a = 5; }
14. }
Which two, independently, will allow Sub to compile? (Choose two.)
A. Change line 2 to:public int a;
B. Change line 2 to: protected int a;
C. Change line13 to:public Sub() { this(5); }
D. Change line 13 to:public Sub() { super(5); }
E. Change line13 to:public Sub() { super(a); }
Answer: CD

SUN   310-065   310-065 examen
19. Which Man class properly represents the relationship "Man has a best friend who is a Dog"?
A. class Man extends Dog { }
B. class Man implements Dog { }
C. class Man { private BestFriend dog; }
D. class Man { private Dog bestFriend; }
E. class Man { private Dog<bestFriend>; }
F. class Man { private BestFriend<dog>; }
Answer: D

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20. Given:
1. package test;
2.
3. class Target {
4. public String name = "hello";
5. }
What can directly access and change the value of the variable name?
A. any class
B. only the Target class
C. any class in the test package
D. any class that extends Target
Answer: C

SUN   310-065   310-065 examen

NO.4 System.out.println("run.");

NO.5 Thread t = new Thread(new Threads2());

NO.6 public Starter() {

NO.7 }
Which statement is true?
A. This code can throw an InterruptedException.
B. This code can throw an IllegalMonitorStateException.
C. This code can throw a TimeoutException after ten minutes.
D. Reversing the order of obj.wait() and obj.notify() might cause this method to complete normally.
E. A call to notify() or notifyAll() from another thread might cause this method to complete normally.
F. This code does NOT compile unless "obj.wait()" is replaced with "((Thread) obj).wait()".
Answer: B

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4. Click the Exhibit button.What is the output if the main() method is run?
Given:
10. public class Starter extends Thread {
11. private int x = 2;
12. public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception {
13. new Starter().makeItSo();

NO.8 }
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
G. It is impossible to determine for certain.
Answer: D

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5. Given:
11.class PingPong2 {
12.synchronized void hit(long n) {
13.for(int i = 1; i < 3; i++)
14.System.out.print(n + "-" + i + " ");
15.}
16.}
17.public class Tester implements Runnable {
18.static PingPong2 pp2 = new PingPong2();
19.public static void main(String[] args) {
20.new Thread(new Tester()).start();
21.new Thread(new Tester()).start();
22.}
23.public void run() { pp2.hit(Thread.currentThread().getId()); }
24.}
Which statement is true?
A. The output could be 5-1 6-1 6-2 5-2
B. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 5-2
C. The output could be 6-1 5-2 6-2 5-1
D. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 7-1
Answer: B

SUN examen   certification 310-065   310-065
6. Given:
1. public class Threads4 {
2. public static void main (String[] args) {
3. new Threads4().go();
4. }
5. public void go() {
6. Runnable r = new Runnable() {
7. public void run() {
8. System.out.print("foo");
9. }
10. };
11. Thread t = new Thread(r);
12. t.start();
13. t.start();
14. }
15. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The code executes normally and prints "foo".
D. The code executes normally, but nothing is printed.
Answer: B

SUN examen   310-065 examen   certification 310-065   310-065
7. Given:
11. public abstract class Shape {
12. private int x;
13. private int y;
14. public abstract void draw();
15. public void setAnchor(int x, int y) {
16. this.x = x;
17. this.y = y;
18. }
19. }
Which two classes use the Shape class correctly? (Choose two.)
A. public class Circle implements Shape {private int radius; }
B. public abstract class Circle extends Shape { private int radius; }
C. public class Circle extends Shape { private int radius; public void draw(); }
D. public abstract class Circle implements Shape { private int radius; public void draw(); }
E. public class Circle extends Shape { private int radius; public void draw() {/* code here */}
F. public abstract class Circle implements Shape { private int radius; public void draw() { /* code here */ }
Answer: BE

SUN   310-065   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
8. Given:
11. public class Barn {
12. public static void main(String[] args) {
13. new Barn().go("hi", 1);
14. new Barn().go("hi", "world", 2);
15. }
16. public void go(String... y, int x) {
17. System.out.print(y[y.length - 1] + " ");
18. }
19. }
What is the result?
A. hi hi
B. hi world
C. world world
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D

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9.Given:
10.class Nav{
11. public enum Direction { NORTH, SOUTH, EAST, WEST }
12. }
13. public class Sprite{
14. // insert code here
15. }
Which code, inserted at line 14, allows the Sprite class to compile?
A. Direction d = NORTH;
B. Nav.Direction d = NORTH;
C. Direction d = Direction.NORTH;
D. Nav.Direction d = Nav.Direction.NORTH;
Answer: D

certification SUN   310-065   310-065   310-065
10. Click the Exhibit button.
1. public interface A {
2. public void doSomething(String thing);
3. }
1. public class AImpl implements A {
2. public void doSomething(String msg) { }
3. }
1. public class B {
2. public A doit() {
3. // more code here
4. }
5.
6. public String execute() {
7. // more code here
8. }
9. }
1. public class C extends B {
2. public AImpl doit() {
3. // more code here
4. }
5.
6. public Object execute() {
7. // more code here
8. }
9. }
Which statement is true about the classes and interfaces in the exhibit?
A. Compilation will succeed for all classes and interfaces.
B. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 2.
C. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 6.
D. Compilation of class AImpl will fail because of an error in line 2.
Answer: C

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11. Click the Exhibit button.
11. class Person {
12. String name = "No name";
13. public Person(String nm) { name = nm; }
14. }
15.
16. class Employee extends Person {
17. String empID = "0000";
18. public Employee(String id) { empID = id; }
19. }
20.
21. public class EmployeeTest {
22. public static void main(String[] args) {
23. Employee e = new Employee("4321");
24. System.out.println(e.empID);
25. }

NO.9 t.start();

NO.10 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.11 }
Which two can be results? (Choose two.)
A. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
B. run. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
C. End of method. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
D. End of method. run. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
E. run. java.lang.RuntimeException: ProblemEnd of method.
Answer: DE

certification SUN   310-065   310-065
2. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible for more than two threads to deadlock at once.
B. The JVM implementation guarantees that multiple threads cannot enter into a deadlocked state.
C. Deadlocked threads release once their sleep() method's sleep duration has expired.
D. Deadlocking can occur only when the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods are used incorrectly.
E. It is possible for a single-threaded application to deadlock if synchronized blocks are used incorrectly.
F. If a piece of code is capable of deadlocking, you cannot eliminate the possibility of deadlocking by
insertinginvocations of Thread.yield().
Answer:AF

certification SUN   310-065   310-065   310-065 examen
3. Given:
7.void waitForSignal() {
8.Object obj = new Object();
9.synchronized (Thread.currentThread()) {
10.obj.wait();
11.obj.notify();
12.}

NO.12 }

NO.13 }

NO.14 join();

NO.15 public void run() { x *= 2; }

NO.16 }

NO.17 }

NO.18 throw new RuntimeException("Problem");

NO.19 x = x - 1;

NO.20

NO.21 start();

NO.22 public void run() {

NO.23 Given:
1. public class Threads2 implements Runnable {

NO.24 public void makeItSo() throws Exception {

NO.25 x = 5;

NO.26 System.out.println("End of method.");