Microsoft 070-433 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 070-433
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (TS: Microsoft SQL Server 2008, Database Development)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to create a column that allows you to create a unique constraint.
Which two column definitions should you choose? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. nvarchar(100) NULL
B. nvarchar(max) NOT NULL
C. nvarchar(100) NOT NULL
D. nvarchar(100) SPARSE NULL
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Your database is 5GB and contains a table named SalesHistory. Sales information is frequently
inserted and updated.
You discover that excessive page splitting is occurring.
You need to reduce the occurrence of page splitting in the SalesHistory table.
Which code segment should you use?.
A. ALTER DATABASE Sales
MODIFY FILE
(NAME = Salesdat3,
SIZE = 10GB);
B. ALTER INDEX ALL ON Sales.SalesHistory
REBUILD WITH (FILLFACTOR = 60);
C. EXEC sys.sp_configure 'fill factor (%)', '60';
D. UPDATE STATISTICS Sales.SalesHistory(Products)
WITH FULLSCAN, NORECOMPUTE;
Answer: B

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NO.3 You administer a SQL Server 2008 database that contains a table name dbo.Sales, which contains the
following table definition:
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Sales](
[SalesID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
[OrderDate] [datetime] NOT NULL,
[CustomerID] [int] NOT NULL,
[SalesPersonID] [int] NULL,
[CommentDate] [date] NULL);
This table contains millions of orders. You run the following query to determine when sales persons
comment in the dbo.Sales table:
SELECT SalesID,CustomerID,SalesPersonID,CommentDate
FROM dbo.Sales
WHERE CommentDate IS NOT NULL
AND SalesPersonID IS NOT NULL;
You discover that this query runs slow. After examining the data, you find only 1% of rows have comment
dates and the SalesPersonID is null on 10% of the rows. You need to create an index to optimize the
query. The index must conserve disk space while optimizing your query.
Which index should you create?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX idx1
ON dbo.Sales (CustomerID)
INCLUDE (CommentDate,SalesPersonID);
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX idx1
ON dbo.Sales (SalesPersonID)
INCLUDE (CommentDate,CustomerID);
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX idx1
ON dbo.Sales (CustomerID)
INCLUDE(CommentDate)
WHERE SalesPersonID IS NOT NULL;
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX idx1
ON dbo.Sales (CommentDate, SalesPersonID)
INCLUDE(CustomerID)
WHERE CommentDate IS NOT NULL;
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are creating a function that references a table.
You need to prevent the table from being dropped.
Which option should you use when you create the function?
A. WITH ENCRYPTION
B. WITH EXECUTE AS
C. WITH SCHEMABINDING
D. WITH RETURNS NULL ON NULL INPUT
Answer: C

Microsoft   070-433 examen   070-433

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You are developing a database using Microsoft SQL Server 2008. The database contains the tables
shown in the exhibit.
You are required to prevent parts from being deleted if they belong to a kit. If a part belongs to a kit, the
delete should not occur and the IsDeleted column for the row should be changed to 'True'. Parts can be
deleted if they do not belong to a kit.
You have the following Transact-SQL statement to be used in a trigger:
UPDATE p
SET IsDeleted = 1
FROM KitPart kp
JOIN deleted d ON kp.PartID = d.PartID
JOIN Part p ON kp.PartID = p.PartID;
DELETE FROM p
FROM Part p
JOIN deleted d ON p.PartID = d.PartID
LEFT OUTER JOIN KitPart kp ON p.PartID = kp.PartID
WHERE kp.KitID IS NULL;
You need to implement the Transact-SQL statement in a trigger. Which trigger syntax should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER tr_Part_d ON Part
AFTER DELETE AS
BEGIN
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER tr_Part_d ON Part
INSTEAD OF DELETE AS
BEGIN
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER tr_KitPart_d ON KitPart
AFTER DELETE AS
BEGIN
END
D. CREATE TRIGGER tr_KitPart_d ON KitPart
INSTEAD OF DELETE AS
BEGIN
END
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have a user named John. He has SELECT access to the Sales schema. You need to eliminate
John's SELECT access rights from the Sales.SalesOrder table without affecting his other permissions.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. DROP USER John;
B. DENY SELECT ON Sales.SalesOrder TO John;
C. GRANT DELETE ON Sales.SalesOrder TO John;
D. REVOKE SELECT ON Sales.SalesOrder FROM John;
Answer: B

Microsoft examen   070-433   070-433   070-433   070-433

NO.7 You need to alter stored procedures to use the WITH RECOMPILE option. Which types of stored
procedures should you alter? (Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Stored procedures implemented from CLR assemblies.
B. Stored procedures that require the FOR REPLICATION option.
C. Stored procedures that require the WITH ENCRYPTION option.
D. Stored procedures that contain queries that use the OPTION (RECOMPILE) hint.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 You are responsible for a SQL Server database. You require the tables to be added or altered only on
the first day of the month. You need to ensure that if the tables are attempted to be modified or created on
any other day, an error is received and the attempt is not successful.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TRG_TABLES_ON_FIRST
ON DATABASE FOR CREATE_TABLE
AS
IF DATEPART(day,getdate())>1
BEGIN
RAISERROR ('Must wait til next month.', 16, 1)
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TRG_TABLES_ON_FIRST
ON DATABASE FOR CREATE_TABLE,ALTER_TABLE
AS
IF DATEPART(day,getdate())>1
BEGIN
RAISERROR ('Must wait til next month.', 16, 1)
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TRG_TABLES_ON_FIRST
ON DATABASE FOR CREATE_TABLE,ALTER_TABLE
AS
IF DATEPART(day,getdate())>1
BEGIN
ROLLBACK
RAISERROR ('Must wait til next month.', 16, 1)
END
D. CREATE TRIGGER TRG_TABLES_ON_FIRST
ON ALL SERVER FOR ALTER_DATABASE
AS
IF DATEPART(day,getdate())>1
BEGIN
ROLLBACK
RAISERROR ('Must wait til next month.', 16, 1)
END
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have created an assembly that utilizes unmanaged code to access external resources.
You need to deploy the assembly with the appropriate permissions.
Which permission set should you use?
A. SAFE
B. UNSAFE
C. EXTERNAL_ACCESS
D. Default permission set
Answer: B

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NO.10 You manage a SQL Server 2008 database that is located at your company's corporate headquarters.
The database contains a table named dbo.Sales. You need to create different views of the dbo.Sales
table that will be used by each region to insert, update, and delete rows. Each regional office must only be
able to insert, update, and delete rows for their respective region.
Which view should you create for Region1?
A. CREATE VIEW dbo.Region1Sales
AS
SELECT SalesID,OrderQty,SalespersonID,RegionID
FROM dbo.Sales
WHERE RegionID = 1;
B. CREATE VIEW dbo.Region1Sales
AS
SELECT SalesID,OrderQty,SalespersonID,RegionID
FROM dbo.Sales
WHERE RegionID = 1
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW dbo.Region1Sales
WITH SCHEMABINDING
AS
SELECT SalesID,OrderQty,SalespersonID,RegionID
FROM dbo.Sales
WHERE RegionID = 1;
D. CREATE VIEW dbo.Region1Sales
WITH VIEW_METADATA
AS
SELECT SalesID,OrderQty,SalespersonID,RegionID
FROM dbo.Sales
WHERE RegionID = 1;
Answer: B

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NO.11 You plan to add a new column named SmallKey to the Sales.Product table that will be used in a
unique constraint. You are required to ensure that the following information is applied when adding the
new column:
'a1' and 'A1' are treated as different values
'a' and 'A' sort before 'b' and 'B' in an ORDER BY clause
You need to select the collation that meets the requirements for the new column. Which collation should
you select?
A. Latin1_General_BIN
B. SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AI
C. SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS
D. SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have a third-party application that inserts data directly into a table.
You add two new columns to the table. These columns cannot accept NULL values and cannot use
default constraints.
You need to ensure that the new columns do not break the third-party application.
What should you do?
A. Create a DDL trigger.
B. Create a stored procedure.
C. Create an AFTER INSERT trigger.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF INSERT trigger.
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have a SQL Server database. The database contains two schemas named Marketing and Sales.
The Marketing schema is owned by a user named MarketingManager. The Sales schema is owned by a
user named SalesManager.
A user named John must be able to access the Sales.Orders table by using a stored procedure named
Marketing.GetSalesSummary. John is not granted a SELECT permission on the Sales.Orders table. A
user named SalesUser does have SELECT permission on the Sales.Orders table. You need to implement
appropriate permissions for John and the stored procedure Marketing.GetSalesSummary.
What should you do?
A. Marketing.GetSalesSummary should be created by using the EXECUTE AS 'SalesUser' clause.
John should be granted EXECUTE permission on Marketing.GetSalesSummary.
B. Marketing.GetSalesSummary should be created by using the EXECUTE AS OWNER clause.
John should be granted EXECUTE WITH GRANT OPTION on Marketing.GetSalesSummary.
C. Marketing.GetSalesSummary should be created by using the EXECUTE AS CALLER clause.
John should be granted IMPERSONATE permission for the user named SalesUser.
D. Marketing.GetSalesSummary should be created without an EXECUTE AS clause.
John should be granted SELECT permission on the Sales.Orders table.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are creating a table that stores the GPS location of customers.
You need to ensure that the table allows you to identify customers within a specified sales boundary and
to calculate the distance between a customer and the nearest store.
Which data type should you use?
A. geometry
B. geography
C. nvarchar(max)
D. varbinary(max) FILESTREAM
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have tables named Products and OrderDetails. The Products table has a foreign key relationship
with the OrderDetails table on the ProductID column. You have the following Transact-SQL batch:
BEGIN TRY
BEGIN TRANSACTION
DELETE FROM Products WHERE ProductID = 5;
BEGIN TRANSACTION
INSERT INTO OrderDetails
( OrderID, ProductID, Quantity )
VALUES
( 1234, 5, 12 );
COMMIT TRANSACTION
COMMIT TRANSACTION
END TRY
BEGIN CATCH
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
PRINT ERROR_MESSAGE();
END CATCH
You need to analyze the result of executing this batch. What should be the expected outcome?
A. 1. The product will be deleted from the Products table.
2. The order details will be inserted into the OrderDetails table.
B. 1. The product will be deleted from the Products table.
2. The order details will not be inserted into the OrderDetails table.
C. 1. The product will not be deleted from the Products table.
2. The order details will be inserted into the OrderDetails table.
D. 1. The product will not be deleted from the Products table.
2. The order details will not be inserted into the OrderDetails table.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You have two partitioned tables named Transaction and TransactionHistory.
You need to archive one of the partitions of the Transaction table to the TransactionHistory table.
Which method should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE ...
SWITCH ...
B. INSERT ... SELECT ...;
TRUNCATE TABLE
C. ALTER PARTITION FUNCTION ...
MERGE ...
D. ALTER PARTITION FUNCTION ...
SPLIT ...
Answer: A

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NO.17 You have a single CLR assembly in your database. The assembly only references blessed
assemblies from the Microsoft .NET Framework and does not access external resources.
You need to deploy this assembly by using the minimum required permissions. You must ensure that your
database remains as secure as possible.
Which options should you set?
A. PERMISSION_SET = SAFE
TRUSTWORTHY ON
B. PERMISSION_SET = SAFE
TRUSTWORTHY OFF
C. PERMISSION_SET = UNSAFE
TRUSTWORTHY ON
D. PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS
TRUSTWORTHY OFF
Answer: B

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NO.18 You need to create a stored procedure that accepts a table-valued parameter named @Customers.
Which code segment should you use?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE AddCustomers
(@Customers varchar(max))
B. CREATE PROCEDURE AddCustomers
(@Customers Customer READONLY)
C. CREATE PROCEDURE AddCustomers
(@Customers CustomerType OUTPUT)
D. CREATE PROCEDURE ADDCUSTOMERS
(@Customers varchar (max))
AS
EXTERNAL NAME Customer.Add.NewCustomer
Answer: B

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NO.19 You need to ensure that tables are not dropped from your database.
What should you do?
A. Create a DDL trigger that contains COMMIT.
B. Create a DML trigger that contains COMMIT.
C. Create a DDL trigger that contains ROLLBACK.
D. Create a DML trigger that contains ROLLBACK.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Your database contains two tables named Order and OrderDetails that store order information. They
relate to each other using the OrderID column in each table. Your business requires that the
LastModifiedDate column in the Order table must reflect the date and time when a change is made in the
OrderDetails table for the related order.
You need to create a trigger to implement this business requirement.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER [uModDate] ON [OrderDetails]
INSTEAD OF UPDATE FOR REPLICATION
AS
UPDATE [Order]
SET [LastModifiedDate] = GETDATE()
FROM inserted
WHERE inserted.[OrderID] = [Order].[OrderID];
B. CREATE TRIGGER [uModDate] ON [Order]
INSTEAD OF UPDATE NOT FOR REPLICATION
AS
UPDATE [Order]
SET [LastModifiedDate] = GETDATE()
FROM inserted
WHERE inserted.[OrderID] = [Order].[OrderID];
C. CREATE TRIGGER [uModDate] ON [Order]
AFTER UPDATE FOR REPLICATION
AS
UPDATE [Order]
SET [LastModifiedDate] = GETDATE()
FROM inserted
WHERE inserted.[OrderID] = [Order].[OrderID];
D. CREATE TRIGGER [uModDate] ON [OrderDetails]
AFTER UPDATE NOT FOR REPLICATION
AS
UPDATE [Order]
SET [LastModifiedDate] = GETDATE()
FROM inserted
WHERE inserted.[OrderID] = [Order].[OrderID];
Answer: D

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NO.21 You are developing a new database. The database contains two tables named SalesOrderDetail and
Product.
You need to ensure that all products referenced in the SalesOrderDetail table have a corresponding
record in the Product table.
Which method should you use?
A. JOIN
B. DDL trigger
C. Foreign key constraint
D. Primary key constraint
Answer: C

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NO.22 You have a SQL Server 2008 database named Contoso with a table named Invoice. The primary key of
the table is InvoiceId, and it is populated by using the identity property. The Invoice table is related to the
InvoiceLineItem table. You remove all constraints from the Invoice table during a data load to increase
load speed. You notice that while the constraints were removed, a row with InvoiceId = 10 was removed
from the database. You need to re-insert the row into the Invoice table with the same InvoiceId value.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceId, ...
VALUES (10, ...
B. SET IDENTITY_INSERT Invoice ON;
INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceId, ...
VALUES (10, ...
SET IDENTITY_INSERT Invoice OFF;
C. ALTER TABLE Invoice;
ALTER COLUMN InvoiceId int;
INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceId, ...
VALUES (10, ...
D. ALTER DATABASE Contoso SET SINGLE_USER;
INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceId, ...
VALUES (10, ...
ALTER DATABASE Contoso SET MULTI_USER;
Answer: B

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NO.23 You have a table named Customer.
You need to ensure that customer data in the table meets the following requirements:
credit limit must be zero unless customer identification has been verified.
credit limit must be less than 10,000.
Which constraint should you use?
A. CHECK (CreditLimt BETWEEN 1 AND 10000)
B. CHECK (Verified = 1 AND CreditLimt BETWEEN 1 AND 10000)
C. CHECK ((CreditLimt = 0 AND Verified = 0) OR (CreditLimt BETWEEN 1 AND 10000 AND Verified = 1))
D. CHECK ((CreditLimt = 0 AND Verified = 0) AND (CreditLimt BETWEEN 1 AND 10000 AND Verified =
1))
Answer: C

Microsoft   070-433   070-433

NO.24 You have a table named AccountsReceivable. The table has no indexes. There are 75,000 rows in the
table. You have a partition function named FG_AccountData. The AccountsReceivable table is defined in
the following Transact-SQL statement:
CREATE TABLE AccountsReceivable (
column_a INT NOT NULL,
column_b VARCHAR(20) NULL)
ON [PRIMARY];
You need to move the AccountsReceivable table from the PRIMARY file group to FG_AccountData.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX idx_AccountsReceivable
ON AccountsReceivable(column_a)
ON [FG_AccountData];
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX idx_AccountsReceivable
ON AccountsReceivable(column_a)
ON [FG_AccountData];
C. CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX idx_AccountsReceivable
ON AccountsReceivable(column_a)
ON FG_AccountData(column_a);
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX idx_AccountsReceivable
ON AccountsReceivable(column_a)
ON FG_AccountData(column_a);
Answer: C

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NO.25 You have a table named dbo.Customers. The table was created by using the following Transact-SQL
statement:
CREATE TABLE dbo.Customers
(
CustomerID int IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
AccountNumber nvarchar(25) NOT NULL,
FirstName nvarchar(50) NOT NULL,
LastName nvarchar(50) NOT NULL,
AddressLine1 nvarchar(255) NOT NULL,
AddressLine2 nvarchar(255) NOT NULL,
City nvarchar(50) NOT NULL,
StateProvince nvarchar(50) NOT NULL,
Country nvarchar(50) NOT NULL,
PostalCode nvarchar(50) NOT NULL,
CreateDate datetime NOT NULL DEFAULT(GETDATE()),
ModifiedDate datetime NOT NULL DEFAULT(GETDATE())
)
You create a stored procedure that includes the AccountNumber, Country, and StateProvince columns
from the dbo.Customers table. The stored procedure accepts a parameter to filter the output on the
AccountNumber column.
You need to optimize the performance of the stored procedure. You must not change the existing
structure of the table.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE STATISTICS ST_Customer_AccountNumber
ON dbo.Customer (AccountNumber)
WITH FULLSCAN;
B. CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Customer_AccountNumber
ON dbo.Customer (AccountNumber);
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Customer_AccountNumber
ON dbo.Customer (AccountNumber)
WHERE AccountNumber = '';
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Customer_AccountNumber
ON dbo.Customer (AccountNumber)
INCLUDE (Country, StateProvince);
Answer: D

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NO.26 You are creating a new table in a database. Your business requires you to store data in the table for
only seven days.
You need to implement a partitioned table to meet this business requirement.
Which tasks should you complete?
A. Create the partition function
Create the partition scheme
Create the table
B. Create the partition function
Create the table
Create a filtered index
C. Add a secondary file to the primary filegroups
Create the table
Create the distributed partitioned view
D. Create the partition function
Create the partition scheme
Create the distributed partitioned view
Answer: A

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NO.27 You need to identify, within a given clause, if the month of February will contain 29 days for a specified
year.
Which object should you use?
A. DML trigger
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued function
D. Scalar-valued function
Answer: D

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NO.28 You have a computed column that is implemented with a user-defined function. The user-defined
function returns a formatted account number. The column must be indexed to provide adequate search
performance.
You plan to create an index on the computed column. You need to identify the valid combination of
ObjectPropertyEX values for the user-defined function.
Which combination should you use?
A. IsDeterministic = True
IsSystemVerified = True
UserDataAccess = False
SystemDataAccess = False
B. IsDeterministic = True
IsSystemVerified = True
IsPrecise = True
IsTableFunction = True
C. IsDeterministic = False
IsSystemVerified = True
UserDataAccess = False
SystemDataAccess = False
D. IsDeterministic = False
IsSystemVerified = True
IsPrecise = True
SystemDataAccess = False
Answer: A

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NO.29 You have multiple tables that represent properties of the same kind of entities. The property values
are comprised of text, geometry, varchar(max), and user-defined types specified as 'bit NOT NULL' data
types.
You plan to consolidate the data from multiple tables into a single table. The table will use semi-structured
storage by taking advantage of the SPARSE option.
You are tasked to identify the data types that are compatible with the SPARSE option.
Which data type is compatible with the SPARSE option?
A. text
B. geometry
C. varchar(max)
D. A user-defined type defined as 'bit NOT NULL'
Answer: C

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NO.30 You currently store date information in two columns. One column contains the date in local time and
one column contains the difference between local time and UTC time. You need to store this data in a
single column.
Which data type should you use?
A. time
B. datetime2
C. datetime2(5)
D. datetimeoffset
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CISM
Nom d'Examen: ISACA (Certified Information Security Manager)
Questions et réponses: 633 Q&As

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NO.1 Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through
presentations that:
A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks.
B. explain the technical risks to the organization.
C. evaluate the organization against best security practices.
D. tie security risks to key business objectives.
Answer: D

ISACA   CISM   CISM   CISM

NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes an information security manager's role in a multidisciplinary
team that will address a new regulatory requirement regarding operational risk?
A. Ensure that all IT risks are identified
B. Evaluate the impact of information security risks
C. Demonstrate that IT mitigating controls are in place
D. Suggest new IT controls to mitigate operational risk
Answer: B

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NO.3 A risk assessment should be conducted:
A. once a year for each business process andsubprocess.
B. every three-to-six months for critical business processes.
C. by external parties to maintain objectivity.
D. annually or whenever there is a significant change.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Based on the information provided, which of the following situations presents the GREATEST
information security risk for an organization with multiple, but small, domestic processing locations?
A. Systems operation procedures are not enforced
B. Change management procedures are poor
C. Systems development is outsourced
D. Systems capacity management is not performed
Answer: B

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NO.5 A security manager meeting the requirements for the international flow of personal data will need to
ensure:
A. a data processing agreement.
B. a data protection registration.
C. the agreement of the data subjects.
D. subject access procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Risk management programs are designed to reduce risk to:
A. a level that is too small to be measurable.
B. the point at which the benefit exceeds the expense.
C. a level that the organization is willing to accept.
D. a rate of return that equals the current cost of capital.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Temporarily deactivating some monitoring processes, even if supported by an acceptance of
operational risk, may not be acceptable to the information security manager if:
A. it implies compliance risks.
B. short-term impact cannot be determined.
C. it violates industry security practices.
D. changes in the roles matrix cannot be detected.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An information security manager at a global organization that is subject to regulation by multiple
governmental jurisdictions with differing requirements should:
A. bring all locations into conformity with the aggregate requirements of all governmental jurisdictions.
B. establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required.
C. bring all locations into conformity with a generally accepted set of industry best practices.
D. establish a baseline standard incorporating those requirements that all jurisdictions have in common.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Security technologies should be selected PRIMARILY on the basis of their:
A. ability to mitigate business risks
B. evaluations in trade publications
C. use of new and emerging technologies
D. benefits in comparison to their costs
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management
decision making?
A. Control risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Risk exposure
D. Residual risk
Answer: D

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NO.11 The PRIMARY goal in developing an information security strategy is to:
A. establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
B. educate business process owners regarding their duties.
C. ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
D. support the business objectives of the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.12 To achieve effective strategic alignment of security initiatives, it is important that:
A. steering committee leadershipbe selected by rotation.
B. inputs be obtained and consensus achieved between the major organizational units.
C. the business strategybe updated periodically.
D. procedures and standardsbe approved by all departmental heads.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following factors is a primary driver for information security governance that does not
require any further justification?
A. Alignment with industry best practices
B. Business continuity investment
C. Business benefits
D. Regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information
classification within an organization?
A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets
B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets
C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification
D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly
Answer: A

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NO.15 How would an information security manager balance the potentially conflicting requirements of an
international organization's security standards and local regulation?
A. Give organization standards preference over local regulations
B. Follow local regulations only
C. Make the organization aware of those standards where local regulations causes conflicts
D. Negotiate a local version of the organization standards
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy?
A. Creating a positive business security environment
B. Understanding key business objectives
C. Having a reporting line to senior management
D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security
Answer: B

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NO.17 Acceptable risk is achieved when:
A. residual risk is minimized.
B. transferred risk is minimized.
C. control risk is minimized.
D. inherent risk is minimized.
Answer: A

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NO.18 An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an
information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?
A. Security metrics reports
B. Risk assessment reports
C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
D. Return on security investment report
Answer: B

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NO.19 What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security
solution?
A. Risk assessment report
B. Technical evaluation report
C. Business case
D. Budgetary requirements
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Internal address translation
C. Prospective employee background checks
D. Employee awareness certification program
Answer: C

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NO.21 From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined
roles and responsibilities?
A. Enhanced policy compliance
B. Improved procedure flows
C. Segregation of duties
D. Better accountability
Answer: D

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NO.22 Identification and prioritization of business risk enables project managers to:
A. establish implementation milestones.
B. reduce the overall amount of slack time.
C. address areas with most significance.
D. accelerate completion of critical paths.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Logging is an example of which type of defense against systems compromise?
A. Containment
B. Detection
C. Reaction
D. Recovery
Answer: B

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NO.24 What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
A. Number of employees
B. Distance between physical locations
C. Complexity of organizational structure
D. Organizational budget
Answer: C

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NO.25 It is MOST important that information security architecture be aligned with which of the following?
A. Industry best practices
B. Information technology plans
C. Information security best practices
D. Business objectives and goals
Answer: D

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NO.26 In order to highlight to management the importance of integrating information security in the business
processes, a newly hired information security officer should FIRST:
A. prepare a security budget.
B. conduct a risk assessment.
C. develop an information security policy.
D. obtain benchmarking information.
Answer: B

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NO.27 The MOST important component of a privacy policy is:
A. notifications
B. warranties
C. liabilities
D. geographic coverage
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management?
A. More expensive to administer
B. Better adherence to policies
C. More aligned with business unit needs
D. Faster turnaround of requests
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
A. Chief security officer (CSO)
B. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
C. Board and senior management
D. Information security steering group
Answer: C

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NO.30 Who in an organization has the responsibility for classifying information?
A. Data custodian
B. Database administrator
C. Information security officer
D. Data owner
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: SC0-471
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Strategic Infrastructure Security)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.2 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to un-archiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: BC

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NO.5 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.6 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: CE

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NO.7 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.8 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some
kind of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are working with some new RPM files on your Linux system. You know there are several options
when dealing with RPM files. Which of the following answers lists proper RPM commands, with the
correct description of the command?
A. rpm -q <package name> This command performs software verification.
B. rpm -e <package name> This command removes the software.
C. rpm -v <package name> This command performs software verification.
D. rpm -r <package name> This command removes the software.
E. rpm -i <package name> This command installs the software.
F. rpm -in <package name> This command installs the software.
Answer: ABE

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NO.10 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network and
computers. Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command:
netstat -e
which of the following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.11 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be
implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this
file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective
security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which one of the following is an incorrect mod equation?
A. 9 mod 3 = 0
B. 40 mod 10 = 0
C. 40 mod 9 = 4
D. (6-1) mod 3 = 0
E. (2+4) mod 5 = 1
Answer: D

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NO.13 What encryption algorithm was selected to replace DES?
A. RC5
B. IDEA
C. AES
D. Blowfish
E. RSA
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If
you have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24,
allowing root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish
this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.16 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.17 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of
the following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an
organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: ABD

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NO.18 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is
the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: ABCD

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NO.19 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.20 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system, and want the
permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent directory to be the same, what
switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client
with name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.22 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.23 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all
Start regedit.exe
Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.24 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing Windows 2003
machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.25 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of
the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On
the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller
asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

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NO.26 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: DE

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NO.27 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.29 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.30 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PMI-002
Nom d'Examen: PMI (Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification)
Questions et réponses: 748 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM
failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?
A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding
B. Confront the person immediately
C. Ignore the rumours
D.

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Code d'Examen: ICDL-Windows
Nom d'Examen: ICDL (The ICDL L4 Windows Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Pressing which of the following keys would place a picture of what is currently displayed on your monitor
onto the clipboard?
A. A
Answer: A

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NO.2 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

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NO.3 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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NO.4 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
A. R.click on my computer->pro perties->General->select the RAM Speed->ok
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: FM0-303
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 9)
Questions et réponses: 335 Q&As

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NO.1 In order to retain FileMaker Pro 6 database behavior, FileMaker Pro 9 may insert a Select Window
script step after which two of the following script steps as the file is converted? (Choose two.)
A. Open File
B. Go To Layout
C. Perform Script
D. Refresh Window
E. Go to Related Record
Answer: CE

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a single record's text
field in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 2 billion
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.3 For FileMaker Pro 9 files that are opened (i.e. to resolve a relationship) and where the window
remains hidden, which statement is true about a script set to perform when opening this file?
A. It will not execute.
B. It will execute as soon as the file is opened.
C. It will execute as soon as the file's first window is drawn.
D. It will execute when the file is opened only if the script has the run script with full access privileges
option enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
A user can install FileMaker Server, the Web Publishing Engine, and all of the associated software
components on the same machine as the web server. Which two of the following groups of ports must
be open to provide database services, web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console?
(Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct regarding the FileMaker Pro 9 batch conversion process when
converting files from FileMaker Pro 6? (Choose two.)
A. A .fp7 extension is added to filenames that do not have file extensions.
B. Existing files are automatically suffixed with 'Old' (i.e., Customer Old.fp5).
C. A prompt is displayed asking where the converted files should be created.
D. Multiple files converted at the same time will be copied into one file with multiple tables.
E. A solution organized with files in nested folders should be converted one level at a time starting with the
files in the highest level / folder.
Answer: AC

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.6 How many simultaneous Instant Web Publishing sessions can FileMaker Server 9 Advanced host?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Pro 9
Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X 10.4.8
B. Mac OS X 10.3.9
C. Windows Vista Ultimate
D. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 1)
E. Windows XP Professional (Service Pack 2)
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about the [Guest] account that is included by default when creating a
new FileMaker Pro 9 database? (Choose two.)
A. It is not enabled.
B. It cannot be deleted.
C. It can log in without entering a password.
D. It can log in using Instant Web Publishing without entering either a username or password.
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which of the following is a likely reason why a file converted from FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9
may open slowly?
A. Use of repeating fields
B. Obsolete data sources
C. Using outdated script steps
D. Having to resolve 2-digit year dates
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which software is required to share FileMaker data via ODBC to remote clients?
A. FileMaker Server 9
B. FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced
C. FileMaker Server 9 Advanced
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303 examen

NO.11 On conversion to FileMaker Pro 9, what does the old password from a FileMaker Pro 6 file become?
A. A privilege set
B. Only the account name
C. Only the account password
D. Both an account name and account password
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.12 A layout showing records from a People table has the Save record changes automatically check box
disabled in the Layout Setup dialog.
Which two actions cause FileMaker Pro 9 to display a dialog asking whether or not you want to save
changes to the current record? (Choose two.)
A. Importing records into the People table
B. Editing a field value on the layout and attempting to commit the record
C. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[No Dialog] script step
D. Running a script that navigates to that layout, changes a field value, and performs a Commit
Records/Requests[Skip data entry validation] script step
Answer: BD

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NO.13 When importing table schema and data using FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced, which statement is true?
A. Privileges from the source file are retained
B. Relationships between tables are imported
C. Tables can be imported directly from FileMaker Pro 6 files
D. The user must have [Full Access] privileges to both the source and destination files
Answer: D

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NO.14 When publishing FileMaker 9 files for web access, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. In order to work with a FileMaker Pro database via Instant Web Publishing, a user's web browser must
have JavaScript enabled.
B. In order to access a FileMaker Pro database using Instant Web Publishing, a user account must have
the [fmiwp] extended privilege enabled.
C. A FileMaker Pro database may be configured for access via either Custom Web Publishing with XML
OR Custom Web Publishing with PHP, but not both.
D. A FileMaker Pro database hosted via Instant Web Publishing using the FileMaker Pro or FileMaker Pro
Advanced client can only be accessed by programs and users on the same computer.
Answer: AB

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NO.15 Which three functions can be performed using the Save Records As PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. Append to an existing PDF file
B. Add a password to an existing PDF file
C. Specify the magnification for the initial view
D. Enable the copying of text, images, and other content
E. Set the color scale of the document to Black & White
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 Script A:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Go To Layout ["Layout1"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Perform Script ["Script B"]
Go To Layout ["Layout2"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Script B:
Go To Layout ["Layout3"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Allow User Abort [On]
Go to Layout "Layout4"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
When Script A is run, on which layout(s) will both the "Continue" and "Cancel" buttons be displayed
during the Pause/Resume script steps? (Assume the Status Area is visible.)
A. Layout4
B. Layout1 and Layout3
C. Layout1 and Layout2
D. Layout2 and Layout4
E. Layout1, Layout2, and Layout3
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following are supported in FileMaker 9 as External ODBC Data Sources?
A. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server Express, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
B. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
C. Oracle 10g, Oracle 11g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Community Edition
D. Oracle 9g, Oracle 10g, SQL Server 2000, SQL Server 2005, MySQL 5.0 Enterprise Server
Answer: B

FileMaker   FM0-303 examen   FM0-303   FM0-303 examen   FM0-303

NO.18 What is the maximum number of bytes available in a FileMaker Pro 9 text field?
A. 64 megabytes
B. 1 gigabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 4 gigabytes
E. Limited only by disk space
Answer: C

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NO.19 Given: A one-to-many relationship from Planet to Moon. Which two formulas could be used as a
calculation field in the Planet table to return the name of the last related Moon record? (Choose two.)
A. Max (Planet::Name)
B. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Count (Planet::Name))
C. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Max (Planet::Name))
D. Let ( planetList = List (Planet::Name) ;
GetValue (planetList ; ValueCount (planetList)))
Answer: BD

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303 examen   FM0-303 examen

NO.20 In FileMaker Pro 9, which two statements about portals are true? (Choose two.)
A. Container fields can be placed in portals.
B. The initial row setting of a portal can be set by a script.
C. A sort order applied to a portal overrides any sort order set up for the relationship.
D. If there are multiple portals on a layout, the Go to Portal Row [First] script step will activate the portal
closest to the top, left corner of the layout.
Answer: AC

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NO.21 Which three statements are true about FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 8 file.
B. It can import tables directly from a FileMaker Pro 6 file.
C. It will retain internal IDs for fields when importing tables.
D. It can copy/paste script steps, scripts, fields, and tables.
E. It can import relationships and table occurrences from FileMaker Pro 9 files.
Answer: ACD

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
A user wants to build a FileMaker Pro 9 database that models a business organizational chart. One
person may manage zero or more people. One person may be managed by, at most, one other person.
The user wants to build the system in such a way that a single layout about a person can display the
name of the current person's manager as well as a portal of the people managed by the current person
(as shown in the Exhibit).
Assume that there are no lookup fields, calculation fields, or fields with auto-entered calculations defined
in any table, and there are no scripts in the file.
What is the minimum number of table occurrences that must be used to construct the layout?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.23 Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one referenced field to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. Using Unicode as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to be case
sensitive.
E. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per
return-delimited line.
Answer: ABD

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NO.24 What are the theoretical maximum limits of file size and record count in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 8 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
B. 64 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
C. 2 gigabytes file size and 100 million records
D. 8 terabytes file size and 64 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which elements of a FileMaker file should be reviewed for behavior consistency after converting from
FileMaker Pro 6 to FileMaker Pro 9? (Choose four.)
A. Record locking
B. Repeating fields
C. Calculation results
D. Instant Web Publishing settings
E. Scripts set to perform When opening this file in File Options
Answer: ACDE

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NO.26 Which two of the following statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips are not visible in Preview mode.
B. Tooltip text can only incorporate indexed/stored data.
C. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object (excluding parts).
D. Tooltips created in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced can be edited in FileMaker Pro 9, but not added or
deleted.
Answer: AC

FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303 examen   FM0-303

NO.27 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Server 9 and Filemaker
Server 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
B. Mac OS X Server 10.3.9
C. Windows NT Server SP4
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition SP2
Answer: ADE

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NO.28 Which two of the following are true about the Data Viewer in FileMaker Pro 9 Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. It always displays the values of all global variables defined in a file.
B. It can only be accessed by users with the [Full Access] privilege set.
C. It can be used to manually change the value of a variable during debugging of a script.
D. It automatically displays the values of fields referenced by calculations used in the currently running
script.
Answer: CD

FileMaker   FM0-303 examen   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303

NO.29 When running FileMaker Server 9 Advanced in an environment that uses a firewall, which ports, at a
minimum, need to be open for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Server Admin Console to communicate
with FileMaker Server Advanced across the firewall from an end user machine?
A. Ports 5003, 5006, 50003
B. Ports 2399, 5003, 16000
C. Ports 5003, 16000, 16001
D. Ports 16000, 16001,16004
Answer: C

certification FileMaker   FM0-303   FM0-303   FM0-303 examen   FM0-303

NO.30 Which three of the following actions in FileMaker Pro 9 will directly trigger a FileMaker Pro 6 database
to be converted? (Choose three.)
A. Open the FileMaker Pro 6 file
B. Import / access data from the file
C. Import / access a value list from the file
D. Use the Convert File script step on the file
E. Drag and drop the file onto the FileMaker Pro 9 icon
Answer: ADE

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