Guide de formation plus récente de Oracle 1z0-559: 2013

2013年12月31日星期二

Novell meilleur examen 050-730, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 050-730
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Certified Novell Identity Manager Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which view do you use to access Policy Simulator? (Choose 2.)
A. The Tasks view
B. The Outline view
C. The Project view
D. The Navigator view
E. The Policy Flow view
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which task within Novell iManager allows administrators to view all objects that are associated with a
particular Novell IDM driver?
A. Object Inspector
B. Driver Inspector
C. DriverSet Inspector
D. Driver Cache Inspector
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statements about the Integrated Installer are true? (Choose 2.)
A. It automatically handles dependencies
B. It automatically installs all of the drivers
C. The iManager plug-in needs to be manually installed
D. It exists only for the Windows operating system family
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which view enables you to view the filters that allow the data to flow between all of the systems and
the Identity Vaults as well as view how passwords flow through the different systems?
A. Project view
B. Outline view
C. Dataflow view
D. Navigator view
E. Policy Set view
Answer: C

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NO.5 An Identity Manager Job can only interact with which driver channel?
A. Input
B. Sender
C. Output
D. Receiver
E. Publisher
F. Placement
G. Subscriber
Answer: G

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NO.6 When you start Designer for the first time or start Designer without a project listed, which should you
first do?
A. Make sure that the Debug perspective is selected.
B. Make sure that the Plug-in perspective is selected.
C. Make sure that the Designer perspective is selected.
D. Make sure that the Java/Java Browsing perspective is selected.
E. Make sure that the Java Type Hierarchy perspective is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When using Designer, which modeling mode is used to do all low-level operations with driver sets,
drivers, policies and applications?
A. Table Mode
B. System Mode
C. DataFlow Mode
D. Architect Mode
E. Developer Mode
Answer: E

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NO.8 What does a Driver object contain? (Choose 2.)
A. Packages
B. Driver Set
C. Policy Objects
D. Application driver shim
E. Subscriber and Publisher objects
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 When using Designer, a perspective is a collection of related views and editors. Which perspective
should be open the first time you run the application?
A. Debug perspective
B. Designer perspective
C. Java/Java Browsing perspective
D. Java Type Hierarchy perspective
E. Plug-in Development perspective
Answer: B

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NO.10 When data changes in the Identity Vault or a connected application, which processes the changes?
A. Drivers
B. Remote Loader
C. Identity Vault
D. Metadirectory Engine
E. Connected application
Answer: D

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NO.11 Identity Manager uses a MetaDirectory Engine to process Identity Vault data and events. What
component assures changes in the Identity Vault are not lost if a connected system goes offline?
A. Partition
B. Obit flag
C. Change Log
D. Event Cache
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement is true.?
A. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Publisher channel to a driver shim.
B. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
C. When an event occurs in a connected system, Identity Manager creates an XML document that
describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
D. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, a driver shim creates an XML document that describes the
Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
E. When an event occurs in a connected system, a Driver Shim creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statements are true? (Choose 2.)
A. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a notification.
B. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a command.
C. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a command.
D. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a notification.
E. Events and commands are handled the same way within an IDM 4 environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which installation mode is supported by the integrated installer?
A. Silent mode
B. Non-root mode
C. Console mode
D. AutoYaST mode
E. Standalone mode
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the minimum RAM system requirement for Designer?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
E. 2048 MB
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 922-111
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 to Rls.6.0 Upgrades for Technicia)
Questions et réponses: 27 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer with an existing Option 11C Rls. 5.5 chassis system is planning to upgrade to a
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability. A CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and
Signaling Server card will be installed. The system will automatically map small system Terminal Numbers
to large system Terminal format during the upgrade. In this upgrade scenario, which actions must be
completed manually? (Choose two.)
A.Re-programming Digital Trunk Terminal Numbers with a new format.
B.Programming the DSP daughterboards on the IP Media Gateway.
C.Entering the IP address for each IP Media Gateway in LD 97.
D.Re-programming Tone Receiver Terminal Numbers with a new format.
Answer:B C

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NO.2 A customer is upgrading an existing Option 11C Rls. 5.5 chassis system to a Communication Server
1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability. A CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server card is being
installed during the upgrade. The CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server card has been
installed into Slot 1 and configured. What is the next sequential step in the upgrade process?
A.Insert the bootable RMD containing software installation files into the faceplate of the CPPM Call Server
card.
B.Reboot the card to begin the Linux base software installation.
C.Insert the RMD containing the Rls. 5.5 customer database into the faceplate of the CPPM Co-Resident
Call card.
D.Connect the administration console to Port 0 of the NTAK19EC SDI cable.
Answer:D

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NO.3 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 HA system with two IPMGs and dual
CPPM Signaling Servers is upgrading their system to release 6.0. The system is part of an IP Peer
Network that includes a NRS database. Which upgrade step is correct?
A.Use NRS Manager to download the NRS backup file to a compact flash.
B.Use Element Manager to download the Signaling Server backup file to a compact.
C.User NRS Manager to download the NRS backup file to the local PC.
D.Use Element Manager to download the Signaling Server backup file to the local PC.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Click on the Exhibit button. You are upgrading a single site Option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability with a single IP Media Gateway (MG) 1000E
chassis. The customer is using a CPPM card from inventory as a CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and
Signaling Server. Based on the output received when the card boots up, shown in the exhibit, what must
done before Linux Base can be loaded?
A.the Low Memory must be doubled
B.the BIOS must be updated from version 74 to version 18
C.the BIOS must be updated from version 14 to version 18
D.the Extended Memory must be doubled
Answer:C

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NO.5 A customer with an existing Option 11C Rls. 5.5 chassis system is planning to upgrade to a
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability. A CPPM card will be installed as a
Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server during the upgrade. Which task must be completed prior to
loading Linux Base onto the card? (Choose two.)
A.The BIOS of the card must be updated to version 18.
B.The S5 switch must be set to position 1.
C.The CMOS settings must be reset to factory defaults.
D.The on-board 1 GB Compact Flash must be installed.
Answer:A C

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Code d'Examen: 920-337
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 and BCM450 Rls.1.0 Sales)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 If a 3/5 channel split is configured, which statement about the DS30 resources is true?
A.DS30 2 cannot be used by any module.
B.DS30 7 can be used by any module.
C.DS30 6 and DS30 7 cannot be used by any module.
D.DS30 6 cannot be used by any modules that require two busses.
Correct:D

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NO.2 The BCM450 Rls. 1.0 base unit supports 100 IP sets. How many IP sets does the BCM450
support with the Capacity Expansion Card installed?
A.100
B.200
C.300
D.450
Correct:C

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NO.3 A customer has a BCM400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are
concerned about overloading the BCM400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the
maximum number of simultaneous tunnels?
A.12 tunnels
B.16 tunnels
C.24 tunnels
D.30 tunnels
Correct:B

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NO.4 A customer's BCM450 Rls. 1.0 system will be configured with 85 IP telephones and voicemail.
This system will also use over 30 digital telephones. What is required to provide sufficient
resources for this customer?
A.a 2/6 split
B.an expansion chassis
C.additional processor expansion cards (PECs)
D.a capacity expansion card (CEC)
Correct:D

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NO.5 A customer wants to purchase a BCM50 solution. They need to determine both the number and
type of Media Bay Modules (MBMs) to purchase that will support their extension requirements.
They require support for six analog trunks, 14 digital extensions, two fax machines, and two
single-line phones, and they may eventually add an analog device. Which two MBMs will meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.one ASM 4 MBM
B.one ASM 8 MBM
C.one DSM 16 MBM
D.one 8x16 Combo MBM
Correct:B D

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NO.6 A company plans to implement a BCM solution with BCM Voice Messaging (CallPilot) and
Contact Center enabled. They are in the process of setting up a contact center. Which two items
should be considered when configuring the contact center? (Choose two.)
A.the number of IP trunks available
B.the number of DSP resources available
C.the number of Virtual Device Interface (VDI) channels available
D.the number of voice ports available
Correct:B D

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NO.7 Your customer wants to purchase a BCM solution. Their requirements include: two Media Bay
Modules (MBMs) with the capability to add an expansion unit redundant power supplies RAID 1
mirrored hard disks Which configuration meets these requirements?
A.the BCM50e configuration
B.the BCM 200 Redundant Feature Option (RFO) configuration
C.the BCM 400 RFO configuration
D.the BCM 450 Rls. 1.0 Standard configuration
E.the BCM 400 Standard configuration
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which component or feature is unique to the BCM450 Rls. 1.0 platform?
A.base function tray
B.eight fax ports
C.music source
D.two LAN ports
Correct:B

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NO.9 A new customer already has an ADSL modem supplied by the ISP. The customer requires:
remote access for management a firewall IP telephony VPN Branch Tunneling Which BCM50
model will best address the customer's requirements?
A.BCM50
B.BCM50a
C.BCM50e
D.BCM50i
Correct:C

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NO.10 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on
their BCM 450 Rls 1.0 system. Which factor should be considered when making this determination?
A.The range is 0 to 48 ports with the Capacity Expansion Card installed.
B.The range is 0 to 32 ports without the Capacity Expansion Card installed.
C.Each voicemail port requires two media channel resources.
D.Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: A10
Nom d'Examen: CIPS (Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply)
Questions et réponses: 142 Q&As

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NO.1 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

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NO.2 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

CIPS   A10   A10   A10 examen   certification A10

NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

CIPS   A10   A10   A10 examen   certification A10

NO.4 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

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NO.5 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

CIPS   A10   A10   A10 examen   certification A10

NO.7 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

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Code d'Examen: FM0-305
Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 11)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two features require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. List function
B. Dynamic subsummary reports
C. Auto-complete using existing values
D. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
E. Add Leading Group by <field name> in Table View
Answer: CD

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.2 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 11 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.3 A table in a FileMaker Pro 11 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
D. The user will see the custom error message, but in the case of an import, overriding the error is not
allowed and no records are imported.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.4 Given a text field myText that contains "<color>blue</color>", which formula extracts the word "blue"
from the field?
A. Filter (myText ; "color")
B. MiddleWords (myText ; 2)
C. PatternMatch (myText ; "blue")
D. Middle ( myText ; Position ( myText ; "blue" ; 1 ; 1 ) ;4)
Answer: D

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.5 Which three FileMaker Pro 11 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose three.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed Timestamp field
C. A Text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored Calculation field
E. Globally stored Number field placed in a portal
F. A Container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: ADE

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.6 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 11? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both.
Answer: DE

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.7 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 11 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
B. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
C. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
D. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of join criteria can be used.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: BE

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305 examen

NO.8 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may be indexed.
B. All non-text data types are converted to text.
C. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation.
D. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL.
E. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: C

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.9 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on the
Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related records in
Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & " " & Name Last) will be broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values in the
Client ID field deleted.
Answer: C

FileMaker examen   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.10 A Text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 11 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & LastName.
FirstName and LastName are Text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
C. each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: AE

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.11 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after renaming the
Item file to Artifact?
A. delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and recreate them
for Artifact
B. click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file path
C. choose File > Manage > External Data Sources... for Collection and reset the file path
D. select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right-click to
choose Rename File Source...
E. choose the File > Recover... menu in FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced, select the Collection file, then
choose Repair References under Advanced Recover Options
Answer: C

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NO.12 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: BE

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.13 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.14 Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker 11 database, where Employee, Manager, and
Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in portals
without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. a portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
B. a portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
C. a portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
D. a portal of the classes that have been attended by a trainer's direct reports
E. a portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager's direct reports
Answer: CD

certification FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.15 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in field options, using
the following formula:
name First & " " & Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
for which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name? (Choose
two.)
A. when the record is first created
B. when the field Full Name itself is modified
C. only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. when either of the fields Name First or Name Last are modified
E. when the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: AD

FileMaker examen   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   FM0-305 examen

NO.16 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. There are no records in the Event table at this time.
B. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC data source.
C. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
D. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data sources.
E. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both related Task
and Volunteer data.
Answer: E

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.17 Which three are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in FileMaker
Pro 11? (Choose three.)
A. Existing value
B. Member of value list
C. Strict data type: Integer
D. Strict data type: Time of Day
E. Strict data type: Alphanumeric
F. Minimum number of characters
Answer: ABD

FileMaker   certification FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.18 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records... nor the Delete
related records... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-305 examen   FM0-305   certification FM0-305

NO.19 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 11 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which script trigger could provide the functionality to prevent invalid data from being committed while
allowing the ability to revert the record?
A. OnObjectSave
B. OnObjectExit
C. OnObjectModify
D. OnObjectValidate
Answer: D

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Dernières VMware VCP411 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: VCP411
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)
Questions et réponses: 560 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.2 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

VMware examen   VCP411   VCP411   VCP411

NO.3 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

VMware   VCP411   VCP411   VCP411

NO.4 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

VMware   VCP411   VCP411 examen   VCP411

NO.5 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

VMware   certification VCP411   VCP411   VCP411   VCP411 examen

NO.6 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

VMware   VCP411 examen   VCP411 examen   VCP411   certification VCP411

NO.7 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

certification VMware   VCP411 examen   VCP411   VCP411

NO.9 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

VMware   VCP411   certification VCP411

NO.10 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

certification VMware   VCP411   VCP411   VCP411

NO.12 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.18 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

VMware examen   certification VCP411   VCP411

NO.19 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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NO.20 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: VCP511
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 (Private Beta))
Questions et réponses: 288 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.11 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.12 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

VMware   VCP511 examen   VCP511   VCP511   VCP511

NO.17 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

VMware examen   VCP511   VCP511 examen   VCP511   VCP511

NO.19 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: VCP5-DCV
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 327 Q&As

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