Les meilleures SUN 310-019 310-025 310-066 310-065 310-502 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 310-019

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Associate.Java Platform.Se. Exam Version 1.0)

Questions et réponses: 242 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-025

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Java Certified Programmer)

Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-066

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Upgrade EXAM for the Sun Certified for Java Programmer.SE6.0)

Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-065

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified Programmer for the Java 2 Platform. SE6.0)

Questions et réponses: 287 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 310-502

Nom d'Examen: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

310-065 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/310-065.html

NO.1 System.out.println(x);

NO.2 }

NO.3 }
What is the result?
A. 4321
B. 0000
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 18.
Answer: D

certification SUN   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
12. Given:
11. public class Rainbow {
12. public enum MyColor {
13 RED(0xff0000), GREEN(0x00ff00), BLUE(0x0000ff);
14. private final int rgb;
15. MyColor(int rgb) { this.rgb = rgb; }
16. public int getRGB() { return rgb; }
17. };
18. public static void main(String[] args) {
19. // insert code here
20. }
21. }
Which code fragment, inserted at line 19, allows the Rainbow class to compile?
A. MyColor skyColor = BLUE;
B. MyColor treeColor = MyColor.GREEN;
C. if(RED.getRGB() < BLUE.getRGB()) { }
D. Compilation fails due to other error(s) in the code.
E. MyColor purple = new MyColor(0xff00ff);
F. MyColor purple = MyColor.BLUE + MyColor.RED;
Answer: B

SUN   310-065 examen   certification 310-065   certification 310-065
13. Given:
11. class Mud {
12. // insert code here
13. System.out.println("hi");
14 }
15. }
And the following five fragments:
public static void main(String...a) {
public static void main(String.* a) {
public static void main(String... a) {
public static void main(String[]... a) {
public static void main(String...[] a) {
How many of the code fragments, inserted independently at line 12, compile?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
Answer: D

SUN   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
14. Given:
5. class Atom {
6. Atom() { System.out.print("atom "); }
7. }
8. class Rock extends Atom {
9. Rock(String type) { System.out.print(type); }
10. }
11. public class Mountain extends Rock {
12. Mountain() {
13. super("granite ");
14. new Rock("granite ");
15. }
16. public static void main(String[] a) { new Mountain(); }
17. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. atom granite
C. granite granite
D. atom granite granite
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
F. atom granite atom granite
Answer: F

SUN   310-065 examen   310-065   310-065
15. Given:
1. interface TestA { String toString(); }
2. public class Test {
3. public static void main(String[] args) {
4. System.out.println(new TestA() {
5. public String toString() { return "test"; }
6. });
7. }
8. }
What is the result?
A. test
B. null
C. An exception is thrown at runtime.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 1.
E. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
F. Compilation fails because of an error in line 5.
Answer:A

SUN examen   310-065   310-065
16. Given:
11. public static void parse(String str) {
12. try {
13. float f = Float.parseFloat(str);
14. } catch (NumberFormatException nfe) {
15. f = 0;
16. } finally {
17 System.out.println(f);
18. }
19. }
20. public static void main(String[] args) {
21. parse("invalid");
22. }
What is the result?
A. 0.0
B. Compilation fails.
C. A ParseException is thrown by the parse method at runtime.
D. A NumberFormatException is thrown by the parse method at runtime.
Answer: B

certification SUN   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
17. Given:
1. public class Blip {
2. protected int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Vert extends Blip {
5. // insert code here
6. }
Which five methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile? (Choose five.)
A. public int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
B. private int blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
C. private int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected long blipvert(int x) { return 0; }
E. protected int blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
F. protected long blipvert(long x) { return 0; }
G. protected long blipvert(int x, int y) { return 0; }
Answer: ACEFG

SUN examen   certification 310-065   310-065   310-065 examen
18. Given:
1. class Super {
2. private int a;
3. protected Super(int a) { this.a = a; }
4. } ...
11. class Sub extends Super {
12. public Sub(int a) { super(a); }
13. public Sub() { this.a = 5; }
14. }
Which two, independently, will allow Sub to compile? (Choose two.)
A. Change line 2 to:public int a;
B. Change line 2 to: protected int a;
C. Change line13 to:public Sub() { this(5); }
D. Change line 13 to:public Sub() { super(5); }
E. Change line13 to:public Sub() { super(a); }
Answer: CD

SUN   310-065   310-065 examen
19. Which Man class properly represents the relationship "Man has a best friend who is a Dog"?
A. class Man extends Dog { }
B. class Man implements Dog { }
C. class Man { private BestFriend dog; }
D. class Man { private Dog bestFriend; }
E. class Man { private Dog<bestFriend>; }
F. class Man { private BestFriend<dog>; }
Answer: D

SUN examen   310-065 examen   310-065   certification 310-065   certification 310-065
20. Given:
1. package test;
2.
3. class Target {
4. public String name = "hello";
5. }
What can directly access and change the value of the variable name?
A. any class
B. only the Target class
C. any class in the test package
D. any class that extends Target
Answer: C

SUN   310-065   310-065 examen

NO.4 System.out.println("run.");

NO.5 Thread t = new Thread(new Threads2());

NO.6 public Starter() {

NO.7 }
Which statement is true?
A. This code can throw an InterruptedException.
B. This code can throw an IllegalMonitorStateException.
C. This code can throw a TimeoutException after ten minutes.
D. Reversing the order of obj.wait() and obj.notify() might cause this method to complete normally.
E. A call to notify() or notifyAll() from another thread might cause this method to complete normally.
F. This code does NOT compile unless "obj.wait()" is replaced with "((Thread) obj).wait()".
Answer: B

certification SUN   certification 310-065   310-065
4. Click the Exhibit button.What is the output if the main() method is run?
Given:
10. public class Starter extends Thread {
11. private int x = 2;
12. public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception {
13. new Starter().makeItSo();

NO.8 }
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
G. It is impossible to determine for certain.
Answer: D

SUN   certification 310-065   310-065   310-065 examen   310-065 examen   certification 310-065
5. Given:
11.class PingPong2 {
12.synchronized void hit(long n) {
13.for(int i = 1; i < 3; i++)
14.System.out.print(n + "-" + i + " ");
15.}
16.}
17.public class Tester implements Runnable {
18.static PingPong2 pp2 = new PingPong2();
19.public static void main(String[] args) {
20.new Thread(new Tester()).start();
21.new Thread(new Tester()).start();
22.}
23.public void run() { pp2.hit(Thread.currentThread().getId()); }
24.}
Which statement is true?
A. The output could be 5-1 6-1 6-2 5-2
B. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 5-2
C. The output could be 6-1 5-2 6-2 5-1
D. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 7-1
Answer: B

SUN examen   certification 310-065   310-065
6. Given:
1. public class Threads4 {
2. public static void main (String[] args) {
3. new Threads4().go();
4. }
5. public void go() {
6. Runnable r = new Runnable() {
7. public void run() {
8. System.out.print("foo");
9. }
10. };
11. Thread t = new Thread(r);
12. t.start();
13. t.start();
14. }
15. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The code executes normally and prints "foo".
D. The code executes normally, but nothing is printed.
Answer: B

SUN examen   310-065 examen   certification 310-065   310-065
7. Given:
11. public abstract class Shape {
12. private int x;
13. private int y;
14. public abstract void draw();
15. public void setAnchor(int x, int y) {
16. this.x = x;
17. this.y = y;
18. }
19. }
Which two classes use the Shape class correctly? (Choose two.)
A. public class Circle implements Shape {private int radius; }
B. public abstract class Circle extends Shape { private int radius; }
C. public class Circle extends Shape { private int radius; public void draw(); }
D. public abstract class Circle implements Shape { private int radius; public void draw(); }
E. public class Circle extends Shape { private int radius; public void draw() {/* code here */}
F. public abstract class Circle implements Shape { private int radius; public void draw() { /* code here */ }
Answer: BE

SUN   310-065   310-065 examen   310-065 examen
8. Given:
11. public class Barn {
12. public static void main(String[] args) {
13. new Barn().go("hi", 1);
14. new Barn().go("hi", "world", 2);
15. }
16. public void go(String... y, int x) {
17. System.out.print(y[y.length - 1] + " ");
18. }
19. }
What is the result?
A. hi hi
B. hi world
C. world world
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D

SUN   310-065   310-065   certification 310-065   certification 310-065
9.Given:
10.class Nav{
11. public enum Direction { NORTH, SOUTH, EAST, WEST }
12. }
13. public class Sprite{
14. // insert code here
15. }
Which code, inserted at line 14, allows the Sprite class to compile?
A. Direction d = NORTH;
B. Nav.Direction d = NORTH;
C. Direction d = Direction.NORTH;
D. Nav.Direction d = Nav.Direction.NORTH;
Answer: D

certification SUN   310-065   310-065   310-065
10. Click the Exhibit button.
1. public interface A {
2. public void doSomething(String thing);
3. }
1. public class AImpl implements A {
2. public void doSomething(String msg) { }
3. }
1. public class B {
2. public A doit() {
3. // more code here
4. }
5.
6. public String execute() {
7. // more code here
8. }
9. }
1. public class C extends B {
2. public AImpl doit() {
3. // more code here
4. }
5.
6. public Object execute() {
7. // more code here
8. }
9. }
Which statement is true about the classes and interfaces in the exhibit?
A. Compilation will succeed for all classes and interfaces.
B. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 2.
C. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 6.
D. Compilation of class AImpl will fail because of an error in line 2.
Answer: C

certification SUN   certification 310-065   310-065   certification 310-065   310-065
11. Click the Exhibit button.
11. class Person {
12. String name = "No name";
13. public Person(String nm) { name = nm; }
14. }
15.
16. class Employee extends Person {
17. String empID = "0000";
18. public Employee(String id) { empID = id; }
19. }
20.
21. public class EmployeeTest {
22. public static void main(String[] args) {
23. Employee e = new Employee("4321");
24. System.out.println(e.empID);
25. }

NO.9 t.start();

NO.10 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.11 }
Which two can be results? (Choose two.)
A. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
B. run. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
C. End of method. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
D. End of method. run. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
E. run. java.lang.RuntimeException: ProblemEnd of method.
Answer: DE

certification SUN   310-065   310-065
2. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible for more than two threads to deadlock at once.
B. The JVM implementation guarantees that multiple threads cannot enter into a deadlocked state.
C. Deadlocked threads release once their sleep() method's sleep duration has expired.
D. Deadlocking can occur only when the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods are used incorrectly.
E. It is possible for a single-threaded application to deadlock if synchronized blocks are used incorrectly.
F. If a piece of code is capable of deadlocking, you cannot eliminate the possibility of deadlocking by
insertinginvocations of Thread.yield().
Answer:AF

certification SUN   310-065   310-065   310-065 examen
3. Given:
7.void waitForSignal() {
8.Object obj = new Object();
9.synchronized (Thread.currentThread()) {
10.obj.wait();
11.obj.notify();
12.}

NO.12 }

NO.13 }

NO.14 join();

NO.15 public void run() { x *= 2; }

NO.16 }

NO.17 }

NO.18 throw new RuntimeException("Problem");

NO.19 x = x - 1;

NO.20

NO.21 start();

NO.22 public void run() {

NO.23 Given:
1. public class Threads2 implements Runnable {

NO.24 public void makeItSo() throws Exception {

NO.25 x = 5;

NO.26 System.out.println("End of method.");

Certification SASInstitute de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen A00-250 A01-250 A00-212 A00-211 A00-201, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A00-250

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Platform Administration for SAS9)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A01-250

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Platform Administration)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-212

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Advanced Programming Exam for SAS 9)

Questions et réponses: 153 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-211

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Base Programming for SAS 9)

Questions et réponses: 218 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A00-201

Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS base programming exam)

Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 The METALIB procedure enables you to update table metadata. Which method does NOT provide
access to the METALIB procedure?
A. SAS Management Console's update metadata feature
B. SAS Enterprise Guide Explorer's library management feature
C. SAS Data Integration Studio's update table metadata feature
D. custom code using PROC METALIB.
Answer: B

SASInstitute   certification A01-250   A01-250 examen   A01-250   certification A01-250

NO.2 Select the method for updating table metadata that provides for the most control over updating features
and can be run in batch.
A. Update Metadata option in Data Library Manager in SAS Management Console.
B. Update Library Metadata task in SAS Enterprise Guide.
C. Update Metadata option in SAS Data Integration Studio.
D. METALIB procedure using SAS code.
Answer: D

SASInstitute examen   A01-250   A01-250

NO.3 A platform administrator needs to delete metadata for table definitions with the following
characteristics:
-the table definitions exist in the metadata repository
-the table definitions do not have a corresponding table in the physical library
After performing impact analysis, what action should the platform administrator take?
A. delete repository
B. delete physical library
C. delete the table's metadata folder
D. update table metadata
Answer: D

SASInstitute   A01-250   certification A01-250   A01-250

NO.4 A client wants to have their system set up so that stored processes can access libraries without having
to manage library assignments in the stored process code. How should the libraries be assigned?
A. by default
B. by client application
C. by pre-assignment
D. by user access
Answer: C

SASInstitute examen   A01-250   certification A01-250   certification A01-250   A01-250

NO.5 A host is using an LDAP provider as a back-end authentication mechanism. For this setup, how does
the SAS server view the authentication?
A. integrated authentication
B. back-end authentication
C. internal authentication
D. host authentication
Answer: D

SASInstitute   certification A01-250   certification A01-250   A01-250

NO.6 Which statement is FALSE?
Updating table metadata enables you to:
A. add table metadata for tables that exist in the physical library but have no metadata in the repository.
B. update table definitions to match corresponding physical tables.
C. update table security settings at the metadata and operating system level.
D. delete metadata for table definitions that exist in the metadata repository but do not have a
corresponding table in the physical library.
Answer: C

SASInstitute   A01-250   A01-250

Polycom meilleur examen 1K0-002, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1K0-002

Nom d'Examen: Polycom (CVE-2)

Questions et réponses: 263 Q&As

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NO.1 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

Polycom   1K0-002 examen   certification 1K0-002   1K0-002

NO.2 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

Polycom   1K0-002 examen   certification 1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002

NO.3 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

certification Polycom   certification 1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002 examen

NO.4 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

Polycom examen   1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002

NO.5 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

Polycom   1K0-002 examen   1K0-002 examen

NO.6 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

Polycom examen   1K0-002 examen   1K0-002

NO.7 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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NO.9 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.12 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.13 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.14 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

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NO.16 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.19 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.1 What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery
catalog?
A. 10M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: A

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NO.2 After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup
control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command
clause should you use to remove these references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.
B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E

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NO.5 What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.
B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files
become available.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been
misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files
in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three
days?
A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.
B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B, D

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NO.10 Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of
commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.
B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
command on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.
B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the
standby database is reset.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.
B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES
parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database
environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary
database.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
Answer: A

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NO.17 The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS
standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary
server.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
Answer: F

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NO.19 What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.
B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.
B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A, D

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NO.1 Which answer best describes the LDAP bind operation?
A. Create a LDAP search operations and authenticates the operation
B. Create a new directory entry, provides a DN and authenticates
C. Creates a RDN entry in the Server for a directory and authenticates
D. Authenticates a client to the server, provides a DN
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
# luupgrade -t -n newbe -s /opt/local/tmp
You are observing a junior administrator. They have just entered the command shown in the exhibit.
Examine the exhibit and select the answer that best describes the purpose of the command.
A. upgrade the newbe environment with a flash archive located in /opt/local/tmp
B. upgrade the newbe environment with a OS image located in /opt/local/tmp
C. temporarily mount the file system /opt/local/tmp in the newbe environment 6 / 58
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D. patch the newbe environment with patches located in /opt/local/tmp
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a container that holds entries for a specific information type?
A. LDIF
B. DIT
C. SSD
D. DSEE
Answer: B

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NO.4 Select the answer that best describes the four LDAP update operations?
A. Add, Delete, Create, Remove
B. Create, Delete, Modify, Rename
C. Add, Delete, Modify, Create
D. Create, Delete, Bind, Modify
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are troubleshooting an LDAP problem for a client. Which command can be used to provid extensive
status information for troubleshooting?
A. ldaplist
B. ldapclient
C. ldap_cachemgr
D. ldapstatus
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are configuring a PXE boot jumpstart server and the add_install_client scripts has returned two
macros, BootSrvA and BootFile that must be configured in DHCP. Select the two commands that can be
used to configure the BootSrvA and BootFile DHCP macros.
A. dhtadm or dhcptab
B. dhcpadm or dhcpagent
C. dhcpmgr or dhcpinfo
D. dhcpmgr or dhtadm
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have been assigned a task to create in new profile file for the jumpstart server. Which profile
keyword will you use to define the software packages that will be installed on the client?
A. install_type
B. cluster
C. system_type
D. partitioning
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two profile keywords are required to install a differential flash archive? (choose two)
A. install_type
B. archive_location
C. flash_update
D. flash_install
E. local_customization
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
# ./add_install_client -s server1:/jumpstart/OS -c server2:/jumpstart/config -p server3:/jumpstart/config
client1 sun4u
Your colleague is configuring a client for installation with jumpstart. They have entered the command
shown in the exhibit. Examine the exhibit, on which server will the profile file be found?
A. The profile file server is not defined
B. server1 in the /jumpstart/OS directory
C. server2 in the /jumpstart/config directory
D. server3 in the /jumpstart/config directory
Answer: C

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NO.10 An objectclass entry is best associated with which LDAP model?
A. Naming Model
B. Information Model
C. Security Model
D. Functional Model
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements concerning Live Upgrade is TRUE?
A. You could use vi to modify the /etc/hosts file in a non-active BE
B. The /usr file system can be shared between two BEs
C. You can NOT use the pkgadd command to add a package to a non-active BE
D. You can NOT create a empty BE
E. The BE can only be modified using the luupgrade command
Answer: A

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NO.12 Swap space in Solaris 10 OS is managed by the swapfs file system.
Which two statements accurately describe swapfs? (Choose two.)
A. The swap file system consists only of swap slices and swap files.
B. The swap file system might consist of physical RAM, swap slices, and swap files.
C. The swap slices and swap files managed by swapfs need to be twice as large as physical RAM on the
system.
D. The swapfs provides virtual swap space addresses, thus decreasing the need for physical swap on
systems with large, available memory.
E. The swapfs provides real physical swap space addresses in response to swap space reservation
requests.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 You are troubleshooting a jumpstart server problem. You need to confirm the install server that the
client is using. Which file in the list provides the location of the install server to the client?
A. bootparams
B. ethers
C. add_install_client
D. add_install_server
E. C0A80101.SUN4U
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two statements about the relationship between NIS master servers and NIS slave servers are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Load balancing capabilities within NIS can be achieved by configuring at least one slave server on
each subnet.
B. Clients cannot bind across subnets, therefore you must provide a slave server on each subnet bound
to a master server.
C. Only one master server can be configured, but it can support multiple slave servers and clients.
D. There can be an unlimited number of slave servers and clients on a subnet, but there must be a master
server on each subnet.
Answer: AC

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NO.15 How many data sources can be specified in the Name Service Switch file for each of the data
types?(Choose two.)
A. only one
B. a minimum of two
C. a minimum of one
D. a maximum of four
E. a maximum depending on the data type
F. a maximum depending on the system type
Answer: CE

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NO.16 You need to update a existing BE with the files from you currently running BE so that you can upgrade
the existing BE. Which command will achieve this?
A. lucreate
B. lumake
C. lucurr
D. luupgrade
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-878   1Z0-878

NO.17 You are configuring a jumpstart server, as part of that configuration you need to add some files after
the install completes. Select from the list the file that will contain the name of a script that will run upon
completion of the jumpstart installation.
A. rules file
B. profile file
C. sysidcfg file
D. postconfig file
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two commands list the profiles assigned to user fred? (Choose two.)
A. profiles fred
B. profiles -l fred
C. profiles -list fred
D. grep -w fred /etc/security/prof_attr
E. grep -w fred /etc/securfity/policy.conf
Answer: AB

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NO.19 The system administrator has placed several entries in the direct map of a Solaris 10 OS machine that
is configured to use local files..
Which three features are direct map entries.? (Choose three.)
A. Direct maps can always be browsed.
B. Direct maps specify relative paths only.
C. Direct maps specify the absolute path of the mount point.
D. A /- entry in the master map defines a mount point for direct maps.
E. A master map that is a local file can only have one direct map entry.
F. The directory specified in the map entry can be mounted from a comma-separated list of servers.
Answer: CDF

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-878   1Z0-878   certification 1Z0-878   certification 1Z0-878

NO.20 if your system uses a large number of mirrors, make sure that you have an adequate number of state
databases. If you create too few state database replicas, performance could be negatively impacted.
What is the recommended number of state database replicas for mirrored volumes?
A. At least two state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
B. At least three state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
C. One state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
D. At least five state database replicas per RAID-1 volume.
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Primavera P6 Enterprise Project Portfolio Management 8 Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle ATG Web Commerce 10 Implementation Developer Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)

Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Middleware 11g: Build Applications with Oracle Forms)

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NO.1 You are a portfolio manager, and a filter has been set to identity and assign projects to your
portfolio.
You are in Primavera P6 EPPM web interface.
How could you be certain that the list of projects in your portfolio is complete?
A. By manually hiding projects
B. By manually adding new projects
C. By manually refreshing the filter
D. By manually updating projects
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567

NO.2 Identify the true statement regarding currencies.
A. Currencies are predefined at installation.
B. Exchange rates are automatically updated monthly.
C. P6 supports an unlimited number of currencies.
D. US dollars is the only valid currency for financial transactions.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Identify the true statement regarding Activity Step templates.
A. Activity % complete must be Physical when using Activity Step templates.
B. There are limits to the number of Activity Step templates in the database.
C. Activity Step templates are the place where resources are allocated and assigned.
D. Activity Step Templates are governed by global security.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Calculated project user-defined fields __________and__________.
A. are created by system administrators
B. are managed by Configuration Management
C. are associated with formulas
D. are viewable in either the web interface or client
E. are defined in the web interface and only viewable in the web interface
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567   certification 1z0-567

NO.5 Select the true statement regarding currencies.
A. Only one base currency is supported per database.
B. Currencies are updated daily per exchange rates.
C. Only 10 currencies are supported in Primavera.
D. Only two currencies are supported in Primavera.
Answer: A

Oracle   1z0-567 examen   1z0-567   1z0-567

NO.6 Identify three best practice uses of Notebook topics.
A. To document processes
B. To explain a constraint
C. To send out an email alert
D. To explain baseline update
E. To change user access
F. To update actual costs
G. To provide status information
Answer: A,B,G

Oracle examen   certification 1z0-567   1z0-567 examen   1z0-567

NO.7 Identify this window.
A. Portfolio
B. Portfolio view
C. Dashboard
D. Project statistics
Answer: B

Oracle   1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567 examen

NO.8 You are an application administrator that has been asked to create a portfolio for an
executive. You
create the portfolio and have the user test to see whether it meets requirements. However there
are a
couple of projects that are missing. You look for the portfolio, but it is no longer visible to you.
What is the cause of this problem?
A. The global filters for the portfolio must be refreshed.
B. You do not have read/write access to the portfolio.
C. You created it for one user, and you are not that user.
D. The projects were deleted in error.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567

NO.9 Identify the business case that would support the creation of OBS elements to align with
WBS
elements within individual project plans.
A. Legal/regulatory requirements that prohibit users from seeing data across functional areas
maintaining
smaller sets of project data
B. Mitigate the risk of significantly variant project management skill levels across an organization
C. Large projects with multiple cross-functional learns that will be responsible for
updating/maintaining
one set of project data
D. Supporting data export/import process to minimize risk of degrading schedule quality
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are working with a customer that has had Primavera P6 running in a global instance for
four years
the customer has asked you to come in and review the instance to identity opportunities for
optimizing the
system. As you look into the coding libraries, you see much duplication of project codes. You
recommend
that the customer come to consensus on the duplicate codes and values, and then eliminate the
redundant codes.
What functionality should you utilize to minimize the potential disruption to the user base?
A. Send out communication that the codes will be eliminated.
B. Eliminate the codes and manage usage issues by exception.
C. Document, usage of each code and value in filters and views.
D. Merge the codes rather than eliminating them.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1z0-567 examen   certification 1z0-567

NO.11 Select two true statements about the Portfolio Analysis tab in Primavera P6 EPPM.
A. Conducts a side-by-side comparison of an unlimited number of portfolios
B. Conducts a side-by-side comparison of two projects
C. Conducts a side-by-side comparison of two portfolios
D. Conducts a side by-side comparison of one project displayed in different views
E. Conducts a side by-side comparison of the same portfolio displayed in different views
Answer: C,E

Oracle   certification 1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567 examen

NO.12 Identify two formats available in the Capacity Planning chart.
A. Stacked histogram
B. Pie
C. Area
D. Variance
E. Cost
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   1z0-567   1z0-567   1z0-567

NO.13 A Physical % complete activity has an original duration of 10, and a remaining duration of 10.
The actual
start is assigned to the activity. Physical % is updated to equal 80%.
What is the remaining duration for this activity?
A. 80
B. 10
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: D

Oracle   1z0-567   certification 1z0-567   1z0-567 examen

NO.14 The Open Requests for Resource's portlet lists unstaffed assignments involving roles on the
selected
role team. Identify two ways that the portlet display can be organized.
A. Role by Project
B. Role by Resource
C. Project by Role
D. Resource by Project
E. Resource by Role
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   1z0-567   certification 1z0-567   1z0-567 examen   1z0-567

NO.15 Identify one filter enhancement in P6 R8.
A. Apply multiple filters simultaneously
B. Create filters with no more than three criteria
C. Cut, Copy, and paste filters
D. Assign filters to unique, single activity views
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Novell (Tcp/ip for Networking professionals)

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NO.1 Which object can a service location package be associated with? (Choose one)
A. User object
B. Root object
C. Group object
D. Server object
E. Country object
F. Workstation object
G. Organizational unit object
Answer:G

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NO.2 Which object can you associate with a workstation package?
A. User
B. Printer
C. Security
D. Container
E. Computer
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683

NO.3 When configuring a Workstation package, policies are available under 6 categories.
General, Win95-98,
WinNT-2000-XP, WinNT, Win2000, and WinXP.
What policies can be configured under the General polices category? (Choose two)
A. Help Desk
B. Client Config
C. Remote Control
D. Workstation Imaging
E. Computer Extensible
Answer:C, D

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NO.4 .By default, which policy package has highest precedence?
A. A policy package associated with a group object.
B. A policy package associated with the root object.
C. A policy package associated with an organization (O) object.
D. A policy package associated with an organization unit (OU) object.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which utility do you use to access the Remote Operator Wizard?
A. StartX
B. iMonitor
C. iManager
D. ConsoleOne
Answer:D

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NO.6 What is the NetWare console command to verify that automatic workstation import
(AWI) is working
correctly?
A. JAVA -SHOW
B. ZENWSIMPORT
C. JAVA -ZENWSIMPORT
D. SHOW -ZENWSIMPORT
Answer:A

Novell examen   certification 50-683   50-683   50-683   certification 50-683   50-683

NO.7 Which policy can have multiple instances for the same user policy package?
A. Novell iPrint policy
B. Remote control policy
C. User extensible policy
D. Scheduled action policy
E. Dynamic local user policy
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683 examen   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.8 Which tool can you use to remotely manage a workstation?
A. NWAdmin
B. RCONJ.EXE
C. DESKTOP4.EXE
D. Application explorer/launcher
E. The remote management agent
Answer:C

certification Novell   50-683 examen   certification 50-683

NO.9 You have a critical application that is being deployed to workstations and you
want to receive notification
if any workstation fails to install the application. You also want a list of
workstations that the application
is delivered to.
Which service location package policies should you configure to receive this
information? (Choose two)
A. XSLT policy
B. SMTP host policy
C. SNMP trap targets policy
D. ZENworks database policy
Answer:B, C

Novell   50-683 examen   certification 50-683   50-683   50-683   50-683

NO.10 For an application to be distributed to a workstation, what defines the
information required to distribute it?
A. The application object
B. The application's .INI file
C. The application container
D. Novell application launcher (NAL)
Answer:A

Novell examen   50-683   certification 50-683   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.11 What objects can you use to set security parameters for remote management? (Choose
2.)
A. Alias
B. User
C. Group
D. Workstation
E. Server package
Answer:B, D

Novell   50-683   50-683

NO.12 What is the benefit of implementing a search policy?
A. It allows you to search eDirectory for a specified user.
B. It limits how fat up the tree ZENworks looks for effective polices.
C. It allows outdated workstations to be easily located and removed.
D. It allows you to monitor events from outside the organization's network.
Answer:B

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683

NO.13 Which is true concerning ZENworks for Desktop 4 application folders? (Choose
three)
A. They can be created as a template object.
B. They can be created using an application object.
C. They can be created as an application folder object.
D. They are used to organize and distribute workstation images.
E. They are used to organize the applications you distribute to users through
Novell application launcher
(NAL).
Answer:B, C, E

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NO.14 You are using ZENworks for Desktop 4.
Which HTML file must be configured for remote users to access applications through
their browsers?
A. APPS
B. DOCS
C. INDEX
D. MYAPPS
E. MYDOCS
Answer:D

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NO.15 Which server package policy should you use to automatically place and name
workstation objects in the
eDirectory tree?
A. Rollup policy
B. Wake-on-LAN policy
C. Imaging server policy
D. Workstation import policy
Answer:D

Novell examen   50-683   50-683 examen   50-683

NO.16 Which ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD4) policies are cumulative policies? (Choose
two)
A. Windows Group policies
B. Dynamic Local User polices
C. Computer Extensible policies
D. Windows Desktop Preferences polices
Answer:A, C

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683 examen   50-683

NO.17 .In relation to ZENworks for desktop 4, which tool is used to assign the necessary
rights for a user to remotely control a workstation?
A. Help desk wizard
B. Remote control wizard
C. Remote operator wizard
D. Remote management wizard
Answer:C

Novell   50-683   certification 50-683   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683

NO.18 The ZENworks for Desktop 4 web services architecture eliminates the need for which
component?
A. Firewall
B. Novell Client
C. ZENworks middle tier
D. ZENworks back-end server
Answer:B

Novell   50-683 examen   50-683   certification 50-683   certification 50-683

NO.19 To configure user-defined policies using the ADM files for workstation objects,
which policy do you configure?
A. Remote control
B. Scheduled action
C. Computer extensible
D. Workstation imaging
E. ZENworks for Desktops management agent
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which statements are true regarding ZENworks for Desktops 4 (ZfD 4) policies?
(Choose two)
A. Policies are stored on the workstation.
B. Policies are grouped according to functional area.
C. Policies allow you to assign file system rights to users.
D. ZfD 4 allows the same type of policy to perform various actions according to a
specified schedule.
Answer:B, D

Novell   50-683   certification 50-683

NO.21 Exhibit.
What will happen if you select the Use as top of configuration tree box?
A. NAL will walk the tree all the way to the root object.
B. NAL will not walk the tree under the child container.
C. NAL will search eDirectory until it finds all container polices.
D. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for launcher configuration when it reaches
this container.
E. NAL will stop searching eDirectory for applications or polices when it reaches
this container.
Answer:D

Novell examen   50-683 examen   certification 50-683   certification 50-683

NO.22 HOTSPOT
Click the option in ConsoleOne you use to get real-time information about device
drivers on the
controlled workstation.
Answer:

NO.23 What can the user package Novell iPrint policy do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set a printer as a default printer.
B. Install NIPP.EXE on the workstation.
C. Configure a printer for a workstation.
D. Install the iPrint client on a workstation.
Answer:A, D

certification Novell   50-683   50-683   50-683

NO.24 In relation to a Windows group policy, which feature allows you to change the
policy preference to ensure that
workstation policies take precedence over user polices?
A. ZEN policy loopback
B. User policy loopback
C. Group policy loopback
D. Workstation policy loopback
Answer:C

certification Novell   certification 50-683   50-683   50-683

NO.25 DRAG DROP
Rank the default precedence of each policy package in order, from highest to
lowest.
Answer:

NO.26 Which configurations can be easily set using policies in the user package? (Choose
two)
A. Deploying applications across various LAN locations.
B. Tracking various types of hardware used in your organization.
C. Providing a full-access workstation environment for administrators.
D. Maintaining a workstation environment for users with special needs.
Answer:C, D

Novell   50-683   50-683 examen   50-683   50-683 examen

NO.27 Which remote management utility can you use to run applications on the managed
workstation from the
administrator workstation?
A. Diagnostics
B. File Transfer
C. Remote View
D. Remote Execute
E. Remote Wake Up
Answer:D

Novell   50-683   50-683

NO.28 You created a server policy package and associated it with a server object.
Where are the polices applied?
A. To all ZENworks for Desktops back-end servers-
B. To all objects in the tree that are valid types for the package.
C. To all objects on the server that are valid types for the package.
D. To all objects in the container that are valid types for the package.
Answer:C

Novell   50-683   certification 50-683   certification 50-683   certification 50-683

NO.29 Which eDirectory design guidelines for NetWare should you follow when implementing
ZENworks for
Desktops? (Choose two)
A. Tier design guidelines
B. Tree design guidelines
C. Policy design guidelines
D. Server design guidelines
E. Replica design guidelines
Answer:B, E

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NO.30 Which of the following describes the ZENworks for Desktop 4 application browser?
A. A distributed application icon that is displayed in the system tray.
B. A web browser view that displays icons for distributed applications.
C. A standalone window that displays icons for distributed applications.
D. A distributed application icon that is displayed on the Windows desktop.
Answer:C

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Not B.Its not a web application