2014年3月31日星期一

Les meilleures Simens STI-884 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: STI-884
Nom d'Examen: Simens (SOCA Sales Small & Medium Businesses (SMB))
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is a Value Chief?
A. The prospect has a PC network upgrade planned for implementing a new application.
B. The prospect is moving to a new, more cost-effective office space.
C. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
D. The prospect is interested in IP technology but is uneasy about a large initial investment.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which business objectives does the Siemens approach to Open Communications impact while
providing business value to customers? (Choose two)
A. Promoting employee competition.
B. Reducing operation costs.
C. Improving asset efficiency.
D. Enhancing business knowledge.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which best represents Siemens' vision for the unification of the various types of communications in
enterprises?
A. LifeWorks
B. Open Communications
C. OpenPath
D. Unified Communications
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which options apply to the Siemens Open Communications strategy? (Choose two)
A. It helps deliver solutions to only small sized businesses.
B. It helps Siemens realize the LifeWorks vision.
C. It provides customers with business value by impacting their growth.
D. It is Siemens' core company strategy and positioning.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which best describes the Optimize customers under OpenPath?
A. Customers who will make specific investments in upgrading some elements if the business case is
right.
B. Customers who want to replace the older systems with new unified communication solutions.
C. Customers who want to make operational cost savings with minimal change to their current
infrastructure and systems.
D. Customers who want to focus around the implementation of new applications and solutions in their own
right.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which best describes the IT-based communications principle of Open Communications?
A. IT-based open Communications enables integration of mobile communications and location
independence across networks.
B. IT-based open Communications uses the latest technology to provide innovative business continuity
services to your customer.
C. IT-based open Communications can be implemented in various forms such as Managed and Hosted
Services.
D. IT-based open Communications means a strong commitment to SIP and LINUX, a clear focus on
IT-oriented deployments.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which best describes Siemens' model for migration to Unified Communications?
A. OpenPath
B. LifeWorks
C. Open Service Delivery
D. HiPath 3000
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which best describes the OpenPath model?
A. How your customers can move their communications environment from where it is today to where they
need it to be.
B. How Siemens' solutions can affect the operating costs and sales of your customers.
C. How to decide which products fit your customers' profile.
D. How to maximize the lifetime values of solutions and services that you provide to your customers.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Why is it critical for customers to have a cost-effective solution that meets the basic needs of small and
medium sized businesses?
A. They want something that works with their existing infrastructure, which is easy to set up and manage.
They typically don t have the money to experiment on new technologies.
B. They need support to help make communications services easier to understand and to promote
internally.
C. A little more than half of small businesses now run a local area network, with 76% of these firms using
a server-based network.
D. They want something that improves business growth by 30% annually.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which factor affects small and medium sized businesses' ability to make informed decisions about
technology?
A. Customer segmentation.
B. Lack of dedicated IT staff.
C. Unclear business strategy.
D. Lack of market knowledge.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How do Siemens Open Communications solutions reduce operating costs? (Choose two)
A. By increasing the number of employees.
B. By simplifying infrastructure and costs.
C. By ensuring that employees work from office.
D. By increasing the efficiency of sales teams.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is driven by growth through productivity? (Choose
two)
A. The prospect is evaluating phone system options due to business changes or expansions.
B. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
C. The prospect needs to install a new phone system to provide for the required capacity of the office
space.
D. The phone system of the prospect is outdated and cannot keep up with the growing business
demands.
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 What makes the Siemens Unified Communications solutions unique in the marketplace?
A. They are proven and mature offerings that operate with your customer's existing IT environment and
provide easy growth and expansion.
B. They leverage existing applications such as Microsoft Outlook.
C. They offer cost savings and productivity enhancing benefits.
D. They enable employees to remain connected when they are out of office.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is an important part of the sales qualification process?
A. Ensuring faster decision making for outstanding customer service.
B. Predicting that the size of the small and medium sized business market for communications is stable.
C. Understanding the psychological drivers of the business owner or manager.
D. Enabling employees to remain connected whilst out of office.
Answer: C

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NO.19 How do Siemens Unified Communications solutions facilitate easy growth and expansion for your
customers?
A. Customers can maximize the lifetime value of the solutions and services that you provide them.
B. Customers need to replace their existing applications with new applications.
C. Customers can implement solutions that need a dedicated team to maintain and update frequently.
D. Customers can buy the capabilities that they need now and activate new capabilities with "license
keys" when they are ready in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which best describes Open Service Delivery in Open Communications?
A. Providing innovative business continuity service to your customer.
B. Implementing Open Communications in a wide variety of forms, including Managed and Hosted
Services.
C. Replacing voice and data infrastructure with new Unified Communications solutions.
D. Enabling integration of mobile communication and location independence across networks.
Answer: B

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SOA Certified Professional S90-05A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has developed a service that allows your customers to check the status of an order. The
schema for the service is shown here:
A new customer plans to use your service, but they want to test it first. They have asked for two sample
XML documents that show typical input and output message content. Which of the following pairs of XML
elements will validate with the schema shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your company has developed a PO service that allows customers to submit purchase order documents.
The message sent by a customer must be based on a predefined "purchaseOrder" element and the
message received by the customer is based on a "messageAcknowledgement" element. These two
elements are defined in the following two separate XML Schema definitions: The "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema:
Note that these two schemas have different namespaces. That is because the "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema is specific to purchase order-related functions, while the "ack.xsd" schema is more generic and
used for a variety of different purposes.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are a consultant helping a large bank implement an on-line banking service for its customers. The
first operation you need to build is one that allows a customer to initiate a transfer of funds. You are
presented with the following sample XML document that represents the funds transfer information that
this operation needs to be able to receive:
<transfer>
< fromAccount>12345 </fromAccount>
< toAccount>44432 </toAccount>
<amount>2000</amount>
</transfer>
You are also provided with the following sample that shows that the response message sent by the
service needs to return a single element with text content:
<transferStatus>SUCCESS</transferStatus>
Which of the following XML schemas will validate the two samples shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 A partner organization has given you samples of XML documents retrieved from their product
information database. The three samples they have sent you are: Because they are an important partner,
you have agreed to write a service to accept XML documents in their format. However, they did not send
you a schema, so you are tasked with defining a schema that will correctly validate their documents.
Which of the following XML schemas will successfully validate each of the above XML document
fragments.?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your developer is asked to build a Timesheet service that is able to receive timesheet submissions for
an internal payroll system. Service consumers need to be able to send this service request message
based on a root "employeeHours" element within the SOAP message body. The "employeeHourse"
element will contain "ernpID" and "hours" child elements. Furthermore, the service needs to return a
message based on a "response" element that contains "empID" and "status" child elements.
Your developer comes to you with the following WSDL definition: The only revision you suggest is that the
value of the "style" attribute of the "soap: binding" element be changed to "document" instead of "rpc".
Why?
A. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body will have the name of the
operation, and therefore cannot be named "employeeHours" as indicated by the requirements.
B. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body is unable to be part of an
operation that contains both "input" and "output" elements.
C. The value of "rpc" is not a valid value for the "style" attribute.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 21 Q&As

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NO.1 The cloud service owner of Cloud Service A is evaluating Clouds X, Y and Z to determine which cloud
environment can offer the greatest level of reliability. All three clouds are geographically dispersed across
three separate time zones. As a result, each cloud experiences usage peaks at different times. Based on
the metrics provided, the greater the usage of a cloud, the lower its reliability. When the cloud service
owner complains to Cloud Provider A (the owner of all three clouds) that none of the clouds provide an
adequate level of reliability, Cloud Provider A suggests a solution that increases resiliency.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a solution that can be used to fulfill the resiliency
requirements of Cloud Service A.?
A. Redundant implementations of Cloud Service A are deployed in all three clouds. The failover system
mechanism and a special type of automated scaling listener mechanism are implemented to establish a
system whereby one redundant Cloud Service A implementation will automatically take over from another.
B. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby an automated scaling listener mechanism is
implemented on each cloud in such a way that every cloud can automatically scale out to another cloud.
As a result, if reliability problems occur on any one cloud, the subsequent requests will be scaled out to
another cloud in a manner that is transparent to cloud service consumers.
C. A failover system mechanism is implemented on Cloud X, which acts as the primary point of contact for
cloud serviceconsumers. Upon failure conditions occurring, the Cloud Service A implementation on Cloud
X automatically hands over control of current and future message requests from cloud service consumers
to Cloud Y. Cloud Y retains control of cloud serviceconsumer communication until the next failure
condition occurs, at which point it hands over control to Cloud Z. Finally, if a failure condition occurs in
Cloud Z. control is handed back to Cloud X.
D. A cloud balancing solution is established, whereby a resource replication mechanism is implemented
on each cloud. This allows Cloud Service A to be automatically replicated across cloud environments,
thereby enabling each implementation of Cloud Service A to take the place of another, whenever failure
conditions occur.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Cloud Service Consumer A invokes Cloud Service A from Cloud X (owned by Cloud Provider X) (1). To
fulfill the request from Cloud Service Consumer A, Cloud Service A needs to invoke Cloud Service B that
resides on Cloud Y (owned by Cloud Provider Y) (2). After completing its processing, Cloud Service B
sends a response to Cloud Service A (3). Cloud Service A verifies the response and then finally sends its
response to Cloud Service Consumer A (4).
The guaranteed availability of the Cloud Service A implementation is 95% and the guaranteed availability
of the Cloud Service B implementation is 95%. Which of the following statements accurately describes the
actual availability that Cloud Service Consumer A can receive based on the described scenario?
A. Because Cloud Service Consumer A's response message is processed by two separate cloud
services, the combined availability increases as follows:
1.- (1 - 0.95) X (1 - 0.95) = 0.9975 or 99.75%
B. Because Cloud Service A acts as both a cloud service and cloud service consumer in order to
process Cloud Service Consumer B's request message, Cloud Service A forms a dependency on
Cloud Service B. As a result, the combined availability decreases, as follows:
0.95 X 0.95 = 0.9025 or 90.25%
C. Cloud Service Consumer A benefits from redundant cloud service implementations, thereby
increasing the guaranteed availability as follows:
1.- (1 - (0.95 - 0.1))X (1 - (0.95 - 0.1)) = 0.9775 or 97.75%
D. As a result of the dependency formed by Cloud Service Aon Cloud Service B,the combined availability
decreases significantly as follows:
(0.95 X 0.95) - 0.1 = 0.8025 or 80.25%
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: L50-501
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Implementation Engineer)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement about the SVM server software upgrade is true?
A. The SVM server must be rebooted as part of the software upgrade process.
B. The SVM server must only be rebooted on major versions, e.g 5.1 to 5.2.
C. The SVM server can stay online during the software upgrade.
D. The DPMs must be taken offline during the SVM server reboot.
Answer: A

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NO.2 At the end of the SVM installation, which three actions should you perform to ensure that the installation
is correct.? (Choose three.)
A. Test failover between two SVMs to make sure that you can successfully failover between SVMs.
B. Make sure that the SVM recognizes the DPM and that the DPM recognizes all of the devices that are
connected to the DPM ports.
C. Make sure that the SVM and DPM recognize the LUNs available on the storage array.
D. Make sure that the DPMs can communicate with each other.
E. Make sure that the LSI Failover Driver is installed on the SVM server.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 A customer is running a cluster with cluster nodes and storage on either site and requires synchronous
mirroring across the two sites. You proposed a stretched SVM domain and now you need to configure the
zoning. Which two zoning rules apply to this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each DPM must see both storage systems.
B. Each DPM must only see the local storage system.
C. Each cluster node must see both SVM servers.
D. The SVM servers must see each other.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 When adding storage to an existing SVM pool, what must be considered?
A. Growing the LUN will provide better utilization of storage.
B. Always pay attention to the performance characteristics of the storage.
C. Always select storage with different storage characteristics.
D. Adding storage to an existing pool will reduce performance.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Two SVM servers in SVM Domain A are connected over Fibre Channel with two SVM servers in SVM
Domain B. The SVM servers' HBA at each domain can see the SVM servers' HBA at the other SVM
domain. What should you do to interconnect the SVM domains?
A. An SVM automatically negotiates the connection with the SVMs in other domains over Fibre Channel.
B. SVM domains should not be interconnected.
C. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect SVM
Domain.
D. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect FC
Domain.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement describes what should be performed after a DPM image upgrade?
A. The DPM rank must be modified.
B. Set the DPM maximum frame size.
C. The DPM image upgrade does not change the DPM configuration parameters.
D. Configure the DPM ports type and speed.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What should you do before starting the SVM server software upgrade process?
A. Reboot the SVM server.
B. Disconnect the SVM Fibre Channel cables.
C. Shut down the SVM Web server.
D. Uninstall the SVM server agent.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which parameter must be the same for SVM servers that manage the same SVM domain?
A. serial number
B. SVM domain name
C. computer name
D. WWNN
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where is the SVM metadata stored?
A. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drives.
B. On a mirror, between the managed storage array LUNs and the SVM internal hard drive.
C. On a mirror, between managed storage array LUNs.
D. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drive partitions.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your current SAN environment includes a storage system with LUNs exposed directly to Windows hosts.
You have been asked to integrate this storage system into the new SVM domain. Which statement is
correct?
A. The existing data can be moved to an SVM virtual volume while the application is still writing to the
source LUN.
B. The physical LUN containing the data must be unmounted from the host while the data is been moved
to an SVM virtual volume.
C. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the host while the data is been moved to an
SVM virtual volume.
D. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the SVM servers while the data is been
moved to an SVM virtual volume.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the difference between the active SVM server and the passive SVM server?
A. The passive SVM server takes control when the active SVM server is too busy.
B. The passive SVM server is a standby server only and does not perform any management tasks.
C. The passive SVM server can only modify objects but cannot create objects.
D. The passive SVM server can only manage user accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two requirements to set up a stretched SVM domain across two datacenters on the same
campus? (Choose two.)
A. Both SVM servers must be located on the same site.
B. The sites must be interconnected through two fabrics/ISLs.
C. Each site must have a minimum of one copy of the setup volume.
D. A dedicated IP link must be provided to interconnect the SVM servers.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 A customer wants to create a SVM stripe. Which SVM stripe value should be set?
A. 64 KB
B. 256 KB
C. 512 KB
D. 1 MB
Answer: D

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NO.14 You have a customer that feels that their application can take advantage of striping their data. Which
two conditions will improve performance? (Choose two.)
A. Striping across two different storage systems.
B. Servers are running a transactional application where I/Os per second are required.
C. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are not of equal size.
D. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are of equal size.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 During the SVM Management software installation, which two adapters would you select to be
controlled by the SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Emulex Fibre Channel adapter
B. Qlogic Fibre Channel adapter
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator
D. Smart Array controller
Answer: B,C

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Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Firewall Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 391 Q&As

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NO.1 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on
the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task,
he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the
new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature
database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion
attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Polymorphic shell code attack
D. Insertion attack
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following IDs is used to reassemble the fragments of a datagram at the destination point?
A. IP identification number
B. SSID
C. MAK ID
D. IP address
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following limits the number of packets seen by tcpdump?
A. BPF-based filter
B. Recipient filtering
C. Sender filtering
D. IFilters
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: C

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NO.5 You work as a Network Architect for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a corporate LAN network. You
will have to perform the following tasks:
l Limit events that occur from security threats such as viruses, worms, and spyware.
l Restrict access to the network based on identity or security posture.
Which of the following services will you deploy in the network to accomplish the tasks?
A. NetFlow
B. Protocol-Independent Multicast
C. Network Admission Control
D. Firewall Service Module
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements are true about an IDP rule base notification?
A. It can be defined as reusable logical entities that the user can apply to the rules.
B. When an action is performed, a notification defines how to log information.
C. It is used to specify the type of network traffic that has to be monitored for attacks.
D. It directs an IDP to drop or close the connection.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
B. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
C. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
D. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following algorithms is used as a default algorithm for ESP extension header in IPv6?
A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Mode
B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Mode
C. Propagating Cipher Block Chaining (PCBC) Mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) Mode
Answer: B

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NO.9 A packet filtering firewall inspects each packet passing through the network and accepts or rejects it
based on user-defined rules. Based on which of the following information are these rules set to filter the
packets?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Layer 4 protocol information
B. Actual data in the packet
C. Interface of sent or received traffic
D. Source and destination Layer 3 address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following components are usually found in an Intrusion detection system (IDS).?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewall
B. Console
C. Gateway
D. Modem
E. Sensor
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages is sent by hosts to request an immediate
router advertisement, instead of waiting for the next scheduled advertisement?
A. Router Advertisement
B. Neighbor Advertisement
C. Router Solicitation
D. Neighbor Solicitation
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Computer performance
B. File system integrity
C. Storage space on computers
D. System files
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Choose the best explanation for the resulting error when entering the command below.
A. The command is attempting to create a standard access list with extended access list param eters.
B. The ACL commands should be entered from the (config-router) configuration mode.
C. The wildcard mask is not provided for the source and destination addresses.
D. The port number given does not correspond with the proper transport protocol.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You work as a Security Manger for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You want to scroll real-time network traffic to a command console in a readable format. Which of the
following command line utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. WinPcap
B. WinDump
C. iptables
D. libpcap
Answer: B

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NO.16 A scenario involves a pool of users with private IP addresses who need to access the Internet;
however, the company has a limited number of IP addresses and needs to ensure users occupy only one
public IP address.
Which technology is used to allow a pool of users to share one global IP address for Internet access?
A. Port Address Translation
B. Per-user Address Translation
C. Pool Address Translation
D. Private Address Translation
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it
against an established baseline?
A. Network-based
B. File-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP network. You have
been assigned a task to configure security mechanisms for the network of the company. You have
decided to configure a packet filtering firewall. Which of the following may be the reasons that made you
choose a packet filtering firewall as a security mechanism?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It makes security transparent to end-users which provide easy use of the client application s.
B. It prevents application-layer attacks.
C. It is easy to install packet filtering firewalls in comparison to the other network security sol utions.
D. It easily matches most of the fields in Layer 3 packets and Layer 4 segment headers, and thus,
provides a lot of flexibility in implementing security policies.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using Secret keys for authentication.
B. Using public key infrastructure authentication.
C. Using Off-channel verification.
D. Using basic authentication.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.20 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to perform various security functions in the network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Skinny Client Control Protocol
B. Authentication Header
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Internet Key Exchange
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.22 Which of the following number ranges is used for the IP Standard ACL?
A. 100-199
B. 1000-1099
C. 600-699
D. 1-99
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following devices is used to identify out-of-date software versions, applicable patches,
system upgrades, etc?
A. Retinal scanner
B. Fingerprint reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: D

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NO.24 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning or ARP Poison Routing
(APR), is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network. ARP spoofing may allow an
attacker to sniff data frames on a local area network (LAN), modify the traffic, or stop the traffic altogether.
The principle of ARP spoofing is to send fake ARP messages to an Ethernet LAN.
What steps can be used as a countermeasure of ARP spoofing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using ARP Guard utility
B. Using smash guard utility
C. Using static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
D. Using ARP watch utility
E. Using IDS Sensors to check continually for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.25 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except the ports that must be used. He does need to have
port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the Internet. Adam is still
worried about the programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block ICMP type 3 messages
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
D. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following commands configures a router to encrypt all passwords entered after the
command has been executed, as well as all passwords already on the running configuration?
A. no service password-encryption
B. enable password-encryption
C. no enable password-encryption
D. service password-encryption
Answer: D

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NO.27 WinDump, tcpdump, and Wireshark specify which fields of information libpcap should record.
Which of the following filters do they use in order to accomplish the task?
A. Berkeley Packet Filter
B. IM filter
C. Web filter
D. FIR filter
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following proxy servers is placed anonymously between the client and remote server and
handles all of the traffic from the client?
A. Web proxy server
B. Open proxy server
C. Forced proxy server
D. Caching proxy server
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following are the reasons that network administrators use Access Control Lists?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Encrypting data to be routed
B. Removing weak user password
C. Controlling VTY access into a router
D. Filtering traffic as it passes through a router
Answer: C,D

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NO.30 Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems consists of an agent on a host that identifies
intrusions by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system modifications (binaries, password files,
capability/acl databases) and other host activities and state?
A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. APIDS
D. PIDS
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer – Java)
Questions et réponses: 275 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about programmatic security are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The bean provider is responsible for writing code for programmatic security.
B. It is also called as instance level security.
C. It is implemented using methods of the EJBContext interface.
D. It is implemented using the methods of the UserTransaction interface.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops the following deployment descriptor code.
<web-app . . . .
>
<display-name>A Secure Application</display-name><servlet>
..
.
<security-role-ref
>
<role-name>Manager</role-name>
<role-link>Admin</role-link>
</security-role-ref>
</servlet>
<security-role>
<role-name>Programmer</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Admin</role-name>
</security-role>
<security-role>
<role-name>Employee</role-name>
</security-role>
</web-app>
Which of the following is a valid isUserInRole() method call that can be made if request is the
HttpServletRequest request?
A. request.isUserInRole("Programmer");
B. request.isUserInRole("Manager");
C. request.isUserInRole("Admin");
D. request.isUserInRole("Employee");
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following methods of the EJBContext interface can be called by both the BMT and CMT
beans?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerPrincipal()
B. getRollbackOnly()
C. getUserTransaction()
D. isCallerInRole()
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a Website that uses HTML and processes
HTML validation. Which of the following are the advantages of the HTML application?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides password protection for a Web page or directory
B. It can be accessed by more visitors.
C. It provides faster loading.
D. It is easier to update and maintain the site.
E. It protects the source or images of a HTML Web page.
F. It puts less load on the server.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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NO.5 Which of the following functions are performed by methods of the
HttpSessionActivationListener interface?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Notifying the object when it is bound to a session.
B. Notifying an attribute that a session has just migrated from one JVM to another.
C. Notifying the object when it is unbound from a session.
D. Notifying an attribute that a session is about to migrate from one JVM to another.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 John works as a Programmer for Technostar Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
1. class WrapperClass{
2. public static void main(String[] argv){
3. String str2 = Double.toString(12);
4. String str1 = Double.toHexString(12);
5. System.out.println(str1+str2);
6. }
7. }
What will happen when John attempts to compile and execute the code?
A. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toHexString() method.
B. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 8p312 as the output.
C. It will compile and execute successfully and will display 0x1.8p312.0 as the output.
D. It will not compile because the Double class does not contain the toString() method.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work as a programmer for PassGuide.Inc. You have a session object named session1 with an
attribute named Attribute1, and an HttpSessionBindingEvent object binding1 bound to session1.
Which of the following will be used to retrieve Attribute1?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Object obj=binding1.getSession().getAttribute("Attribute1");
B. Object obj=binding1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
C. Long MyAttribute=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
D. String str1=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
E. Object obj=session1.getAttribute("Attribute1");
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Mark works as a Programmer for InfoTech Inc. He develops a deployment descriptor code that contains
three valid
<security-constraint> elements.
All of them constraining a Web resource Res1, the
<auth-constraint> sub-element of the <security-constraint>
elements are as follows.
<auth-constraint>Admin</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint>Manager</auth-constraint>
<auth-constraint/>
Which of the following can access the resource Res1?
A. Only Manager can access the resource.
B. No one can access the resource.
C. Everyone can access the resource.
D. Only Admin can access the resource.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Given a code of a class named PrintString that prints a string.
1. public class PrintString{
2. public static void main(String args[]){
3. /*insert code here */
4. /* insert code here */
5. System.out.println(str);
6. }
7. }
Which of the following code fragments can be inserted in the class PrintString to print the output
"4247"?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
B. StringBuffer str= new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.delete(0,3).replace(1,3,"24").delete(4,6);
C. StringBuffer str=new StringBuffer("123456789");
str.substring(3,6).delete(1,2).insert(1,"24");
D. StringBuilder str= new StringBuilder("123456789");
str.deleteCharAt(6).replace(1,3,"24").delete(0,3);
E. String str="123456789";
str=(str-"123").replace(1,3,"24")-"89";
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which of the following elements are the subelements of the mime-mapping element in a
deployment descriptor file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. exception-type
B. error-code
C. extension
D. mime-type
E. servlet-class
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements about a JAR file are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It cannot be accessed through a class path, nor they can be used by java and javac.
B. It is used to compress and archive data.
C. It can be moved from one computer to another.
D. It is created by using the jar command.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 John works as a Software Developer for VenTech Inc. He writes the following code using Java.
public class vClass extends Thread
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
vClass vc=new vClass();
vc.run();
}
public void start()
{
for(int k=0;k<20;k++)
{
System.out.println("The value of k = "+k);
}
}
}
What will happen when he attempts to compile and execute the application.?
A. The application will compile successfully and the values from 0 to 19 will be displayed as the output.
B. A compile-time error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
C. A runtime error will occur indicating that no run() method is defined for the Thread class.
D. The application will compile successfully but will not display anything as the output.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Mark writes a class Practice.java. This class needs to access the com.bar.Test class that is stored in
the Test.jar file in the directory /practice. How would you compile your code?
A. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar Practice.java
B. javac -classpath /practice/ Practice.java
C. javac -classpath /practice/Test.jar/com/bar Practice.java
D. javac -classpath /practice Practice.java
Answer: A

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NO.14 You work as a Software Developer for UcTech Inc. You create a session using the HttpSession
interface. You want the attributes to be informed when the session is moved from one JVM to another and
also when an attribute is added or removed from the session. Which of the following interfaces can you
use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpSessionListener
C. HttpSessionActivationListener
D. HttpSessionAttributeListener
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 You have written the following code snippet.
1. public class Read {
2. protected int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
3. }
4. class Text extends Read {
5. /*insert code here*/
6. }
Which of the following methods, inserted independently at line 5, will compile?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. private int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
B. protected long ReadText(int x, int y) { return 0; }
C. protected long ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
D. protected int ReadText(long x) { return 0; }
E. private int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
F. public int ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
G. protected long ReadText(int x) { return 0; }
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An inner class cannot be defined as private.
B. An inner class cannot be defined as protected.
C. An inner class can be defined as private.
D. An inner class can extend another class.
Answer: C,D

GIAC   GSSP-JaVa   GSSP-JaVa

NO.17 Which of the following classes is an engine class that provides an opaque representation of
cryptographic parameters?
A. DSAPublicKeySpec
B. AlgorithmParameterGenerator
C. DSAParameterSpec
D. AlgorithmParameters
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following deployment descriptor elements must contain the <transport-guarantee>
element as its mandatory sub-element?
A. <user-data-constraint>
B. <web-resource-collection>
C. <auth-constraint>
D. <login-config>
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements correctly describe the features of the singleton pattern?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Singletons are used to control object creation by limiting the number to one but allowing the flexibility to
create more objects if the situation changes.
B. Singletons can only be stateless, providing utility functions that need no more information than their
parameters.
C. A singleton class may disappear if no object holds a reference to the Singleton object, and it will be
reloaded later when the singleton is needed again.
D. The behavior of a singleton can be obtained by static fields and methods such as
java.lang.Math.sin(double).
Answer: A,C,D

GIAC   certification GSSP-JaVa   certification GSSP-JaVa   GSSP-JaVa

NO.20 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All UTF characters are eight bits long.
B. All UTF characters are all sixteen bits long.
C. All UTF characters are twenty four bits long.
D. All bytecode characters are sixteen bits long.
E. All unicode characters are sixteen bits long.
Answer: E

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L'avènement de la certification Google pratique d'examen adwords-display questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: adwords-display
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Display Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is one of the reserved media placements available on YouTube?
A. Play rate
B. Partner Watch Pages
C. Display ad builder
D. AdWords Auction
Answer: B

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NO.2 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Google makes many recommendations for Google AdWords users for direct response campaigns.
One of the recommendations Google makes is to implement cost-per-click bidding so that you only pay
when people click your ad. What other reason is valid for using the cost-per-click bidding?
A. If you want to be included in Google Content Network, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
B. If you are creating a display ad, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
C. If you want to include video overlays ads, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
D. If you want to use the Conversion Optimizer tool, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the contextual
targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
so his ads will show on related Websites.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following tools will you use to identify potential ad group themes for your display
campaigns?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Wonder wheel
D. Display ad builder
Answer: C

Google examen   adwords-display   adwords-display examen

NO.6 Jan has a Website selling shoes and socks online. She would like to use Google AdWords'
costperacquisition approach for her ads. If Jan uses this approach what must she also do?
A. Jan must also use Google Checkout.
B. Jan must be a preferred Google vendor.
C. Jan must use the Conversion Optimizer.
D. Jan must set her CPC maximum bids to a minimum of 25 cents.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

Google examen   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.8 Examine the image given below:
What Google Tool is being used in the image above?
A. Google Wonder Wheel
B. Google Rich Media Ad Builder
C. Google Ad Builder
D. Google Ads Diagnostic Tool
Answer: C

Google   adwords-display   certification adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.9 Google has some very specific recommendations for planning a display campaign. According to Google,
what is the top recommendation for planning an effective display campaign?
A. Set your bids and budget.
B. Identify your goals.
C. Find your target audience.
D. Create your custom display ad.
Answer: B

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display examen

NO.10 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display examen   adwords-display examen

NO.12 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are managing a Google AdWords campaign for a company. You launch a new display campaign.
In the first week of the campaign launch, you noticed a large number of clicksbut no conversions. Which
of the following actions can you perform to resolve the issue?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Increase bidding for successful sites.
B. Verify that your conversion code is set up correctly.
C. Evaluate performance of campaign regularly.
D. Check the ad creative and the landing page to make sure they are well matched.
Answer: B,D

Google examen   adwords-display   adwords-display

NO.14 Which of the following is a Google property where display ads are eligible to appear?
A. MSN
B. YouTube
C. Wonder wheel
D. Yahoo
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following tabs will you use to see and edit details of all the ad groups in your AdWords
account?
A. Ad groups
B. Campaign
C. Statistics
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.16 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Henry has created a video that he'd like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a
demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video
advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Overlay video ad
B. In-stream video ad
C. Click-to-play video ad
D. Video placement ad
Answer: C

Google   adwords-display   adwords-display examen   adwords-display   adwords-display   adwords-display examen

NO.18 Amy is managing a Google AdWords campaign for her company. Her manager has asked Amy to
create a performance report for the overall campaign performance. What steps will Amy take to generate
this performance report?
A. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report for All Campaigns, and then she'll
select the Campaign Performance option.
B. Amy will click Reporting, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
C. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
D. Amy will click Opportunities, then Keywords, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the
Campaign Performance option.
Answer: B

Google examen   adwords-display   certification adwords-display

NO.19 Consider the image shown below:
What will happen if you click on the "history of soccer" link in the image?
A. You'll be taken to the first page with the keyword "history of soccer" in the Google search r esults.
B. Another line will branch out from "soccer" with related links to the "history of soccer" link.
C. The "soccer" wheel will fade to the background and a new wheel called "history of soccer" will be
created.
D. Google AdWords will display ads related to the "history of soccer" for this keyword.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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Les meilleures Aruba ACMP examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ACMP
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 In the diagram provided for this question,
wireless User A is associated with the Aruba AP. The Aruba controller is configured to perform L2
switching.
What will be the wireless user's default gateway?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

Aruba   certification ACMP   certification ACMP

NO.2 Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba
Controllers?
A. Security Logs
B. Management Logs
C. Wireless Logs
D. IDS Logs
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.3 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address
translation (dst-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address
B. redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide a telnet connection to the controller
Answer: B

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NO.4 When an Aruba 6000 controller has two M3 modules installed, for which uses may the modules be
used? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. hot standby operations
B. VRRP backup
C. higher AP density per switch chassis
D. Active-Active masters
Answer: B,C

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NO: 6 Referring to the above screen capture,
which tab tells you which licenses are installed on the controller?
A. Controller Summary
B. All Wlan Controllers
C. Process Logs
D. Inventory
Answer: D

Aruba   ACMP   ACMP   ACMP
Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 7 Which method is NOT supported to provision an Aruba thin AP?
A. Telnet directly to AP
B. SSH to the AP's controller
C. Web interface to the AP's controller
D. Console to AP
Answer: A

Aruba   ACMP   ACMP examen   ACMP   ACMP
NO: 8 The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B

certification Aruba   ACMP   ACMP
Topic 2, Volume B
NO: 9 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. The controller must have a public IP address.
Answer: B

Aruba   certification ACMP   ACMP   ACMP
Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 10 When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer chooses 'fail through mode'.
What other feature has to be enabled on the controller for this to work?
A. Machine authentication
B. EAP Termination
C. Server group fall through mode
D. MAC authentication
Answer: B

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NO.5 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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