2013年11月1日星期五

Meilleur HP HP5-T01D test formation guide

Être un travailleur IT, est-ce que vous vous souciez encore pour passer le test Certificat IT? Le test examiner les techniques et connaissances professionnelles, donc c'est pas facile à réussir. Pour les candidats qui participent le test à la première fois, une bonne formation est très importante. Pass4Test offre les outils de formation particulier au test et bien proche de test réel, n'hésitez plus d'ajouter la Q&A au panier.

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Code d'Examen: HP5-T01D
Nom d'Examen: HP (Delta - Supporting HP Industry Standard Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Which steps should you perform to save a Virtual Connect configuration?
A. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, show config, save
B. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, inventory
C. from CLI: show all > cfg,txt
D. VCM, Tools, Backup/Restore Domain Configuration
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why should you use an electrostatic discharge (ESD) wrist strap when replacing parts such as
memory DIMMs?
A. It prevents the part from being damaged by static electricity.
B. It incorporates high resistance and dissipates electrical charges into the ozone.
C. A 48 V DC PSU will contribute to higher static electricity.
D. A current of more than 75 mA can kill someone.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which button should you press to enter the RBSU during POST?
A. F8
B. F9
C. F11
D. F12
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?objectID=c032559
24&prodSeriesId=5177953(See Using RBSU)

NO.4 You replaced a Smart Array P812 in a ProLiant DL380 G7 storage server. What should you do
next?
A. Check the FBWC charge.
B. Replace the cache module.
C. Install the BBWC battery.
D. Verify that the firmware level is current.
Answer: D

HP   HP5-T01D examen   HP5-T01D

NO.5 What should be installed on a ProLiant Gen8 server to display operating system information
within the iLO 4 GUI?
A. HP Management Agents
B. System Management Home Page
C. Agentless Management Service
D. ProLiant Support Pack
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03488111 /c03488111.p
d f

NO.6 Where can you verify the status of an external DVD-ROM drive in a c7000 enclosure?
A. Active Health Log
B. Integrated Management Log
C. Virtual SAS Manager
D. Insight Display
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HH0-120
Nom d'Examen: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations - Modular Exam)
Questions et réponses: 262 Q&As

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NO.1 How does the Hitachi AMS2000 family protect write data in cache to ensure data integrity?
A.Write I/O is mirrored to cache in both controllers.
B.Write I/O is mirrored to independent cache partitions.
C.Write I/O is striped across two independent cache boards.
D.Write I/O parity information is written to independent cache boards.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 A storage administrator wants to use TrueCopy to replicate volumes between an AMS2100 and an
AMS2300.
How many S-VOL copies can be made from a single P-VOL?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 Which two steps are required before using Hitachi Replication Manager? (Choose two.)
A.Replication Manager Agent must be installed.
B.RAID Manager or CCI must be installed.
C.Business Continuity Manager must be installed.
D.Hitachi Device Manager must be installed prior to the installation of Replication Manager software.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.4 A data warehouse application needs access to current data at multiple times during the day for billing
and data mining.
What is used to create the online copy of the OLTP server within the same storage system?
A.TrueCopy
B.ShadowImage
C.Copy-on-Write Snapshot
D.TrueCopy Extended Distance
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 Customers are increasingly finding new ways for information technology departments to provide value
to business.
How does Services Oriented Storage Solutions (SOSS) help our customers accomplish this?
A.by matching the business value of data to the appropriate storage tier
B.by increasing customer profitability by managing operational expenses
C.by establishing Industry Standard Best Practices into everyday operations
D.by providing a business-centric approach for aligning IT storage resources with business requirements
ANSWER: D

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NO.6 A customer is lowering their recovery time objective (RTO) and increasing the integrity of their
backups by using backup to disk. The production data is on a USP V.
Which HDS array provides the most cost effective solution for backup to disk?
A.USP100
B.AMS2300
C.AMS2100
D.WMS100
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 What are two advantages of Services Optimized Storage Solutions? (Choose two.)
A.It delivers storage infrastructure components that can be integrated to match application requirements.
B.It offers the ability to combine Fibre Channel SAN storage with IP-based storage.
C.It provides database administrators with the ability to provision and manage storage.
D.It offers application-centric, quality-of-service (QoS) data delivery, based on: performance, availability,
cost, and protection requirements.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.8 A customer is using Storage Navigator Modular to setup RAID Groups on a new AMS2100.
Which three RAID levels are supported? (Choose three.)
A.RAID-3
B.RAID-6
C.RAID-5
D.RAID-4
E.RAID-1+0
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.9 A customer requires a new modular storage array which will use parity for data protection. When a
drive fails in a RAID 5 Group, the remaining disks are each a single point-of-failure. A requirement is that
the vendor must minimize the amount of time the array is in a single point-of-failure state following a disk
failure.
Which two features of the AMS2300 support the requirement? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 6
B.RAID 5+1
C.Dynamic Sparing
D.Fast Disk Rebuild
ANSWER: AC

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NO.10 Which three software features are supported on the Hitachi AMS 2000 family? (Choose three.)
A.Password Protection
B.Universal Replicator
C.TrueCopy Synchronous
D.Copy-on-Write Snapshot
E.TrueCopy Asynchronous
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.11 A customer is evaluating AMS storage arrays to provide storage for a high performance database that
must be available 24x7.
Which HDS supported configuration meets their needs?
A.AMS2100 with SATA drives
B.AMS2300 with SAS drives
C.AMS1000 with SATA drives
D.AMS500 with FC drives
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 HDS Adaptable Modular Storage models AMS2100 and AMS2300 provide efficient cost-effective
storage.
Which three attributes characterize the AMS product line? (Choose three.)
A.high availability
B.cache partitioning
C.ease of management
D.large-scale virtualization
E.dynamic provisioning
ANSWER: ABC

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NO.13 You have been asked to choose one AMS2000 family storage system to provide remote access
through iSCSI and local SAN support over Fibre Channel at the same time.
Which model will satisfy the customer's requirements?
A.AMS2100
B.AMS2300
C.AMS2500
D.AMS2800
ANSWER: C

Hitachi   HH0-120   HH0-120 examen

NO.14 A customer has a WMS100 array to run an application with low performance and availability
requirements.
Which WMS100 configuration would meet the requirements?
A.SATA or FC disks
B.one or two controllers
C.one or two host FC ports per controller
D.one or two back-end loops per controller
ANSWER: B

Hitachi   HH0-120   HH0-120

NO.15 Which AMS2300 feature can be used to isolate the I/O of a MS Exchange application from a backup
application?
A.Host Storage Manager
B.Cache Partition Manager
C.Virtual Partition Manager
D.Cache Residency Manager
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 Which feature in Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) allows an administrator to remove an LU and
a path without restarting the server?
A.path failover
B.dynamic reconfiguration
C.dynamic deletion
D.Disk Manager
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 You want to maximize database performance by dividing cache into partitions.
What is the maximum number of partitions on an AMS2300 system?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
ANSWER: D

Hitachi   HH0-120   HH0-120   HH0-120

NO.18 An AMS or WMS storage system requires the PC running Storage Navigator Modular 2 to be attached
to the system.
Which communication interface is used by Storage Navigator Modular 2 to talk with the system?
A.USB
B.LAN
C.iSCSI
D.Fibre Channel
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 What is the function of HDD Roaming in the Adaptable Modular Storage family?
A.It allows you to perform background HDD-scrubbing.
B.It allows you to monitor the system for HDD failures.
C.It allows you to increase RAID Group capacity dynamically.
D.It allows you to specify RAID Group with HDDs regardless of RKA.
ANSWER: D

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NO.20 A customer has multiple applications and one high performance application accessing an AMS2300.
The high performance application consumes all system resources and is causing the other applications to
slow down.
Which feature can be used to prevent the high performance application from monopolizing the AMS2300?
A.Cache Partition Manager
B.Server Priority Manager
C.Cache Residency Manager
D.Universal Volume Manager
ANSWER: A

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Code d'Examen: HH0-130
Nom d'Examen: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Fondations)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two advantages of TrueCopy Extended Distance replication? (Choose two.)
A. It has no data loss.
B. It provides extended de-duplication.
C. It provides write order integrity.
D. It provides consistency group support.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 A HUS VM customer requires a tool set to gather and report on application service level
objectives
and storage performance. Which package should the customer use?
A. HUS VM Virtual Partition Manager Package
B. HUS VM Analytics Package
C. HUS VM Mobility Package
D. HUS VM Local Protection Package
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which protocol does the HUS VM back-end architecture use?
A. SATA
B. SAS
C. FC
D. IP
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company has purchased a HUS VM storage system and they want to connect it to their
existing
AIX and Windows servers. Which HUS VM feature will allow these hosts to co-exist on the same
CHB ports?
A. Port Aggregation
B. Shared Memory Paths
C. High Speed Port Mode
D. Host Group
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three actions can be performed with Storage Navigator 2 on a VSP? (Choose three.)
A. Define migration policies.
B. Provision the storage system.
C. View system alerts.
D. Acquire logs.
E. Set System Option Modes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Your customer has purchased Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) to support their Service
Level Agreement targets. HTSM will be used to migrate data between their VSP and HUS
systems. Which type of migration will be performed?
A. non-disruptive volume migration based on conditions
B. dynamic file migration based on conditions
C. non-disruptive file level migration based on conditions
D. dynamic "page" level migration based on I/O load
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-End Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Your customer wants to connect a HUS system to a VSP as external storage. What are two valid
options to connect both storage systems? (Choose two.)
A. direct connection
B. FC SAN connection
C. connection using iSCSI
D. connection using FCoE
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 A customer would like to deploy a new HUS system with Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP).
They would like to control the amount of over provisioning from their HDP Pools by not allowing
more DP-Vols to be created beyond a certain percentage. Which over-provisioning threshold can
an administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Early Alert
B. Warning
C. Limit
D. Depletion Alert
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are two valid Hitachi Data Ingestor (HDI) configuration options? (Choose two.)
A. as a single node
B. as a n+1 cluster
C. as a VMware appliance
D. as a Hyper-V appliance
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: GB0-283
Nom d'Examen: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Routing Networks)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 BGP
A. CIDR
B. BGP detail-suppressed
C. BGP network BGP
D. BGP import BGP
Answer: AB

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NO.2 QoS
A. QoS
B.
C. QoS
D. CBQ WRED
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Quidway OSPF
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.4 OSPF OSPF 0
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.5 OSPF
A. spf
B.
C.
D.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 OSPF
A. stub networks
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. point-to-multipoint
Answer: ABCD

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NO.7 OSPF
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: AB

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NO.8 OSPF ASBR 192.168.0.0/24~192.168.3.0/24 4 ABR
192.168.0.0/22 ABR
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.9 OSPF IS-IS
A. TCP/IP
B.
C. AREA 0
D.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 OSPF RIPv2
A.
B.
C.
D. VLSM
Answer: D

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NO.11 OSPF
A. DV
B. SPF
C. HASH
D. 3DES
Answer: B

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NO.12 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A. WFQ CQ Tail Drop
B. WFQ ACL
C. CBWFQ WFQ WFQ
D. LLQ
Answer: D

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NO.14 OSPF Router ID
A.
B.
C. IP
D.
Answer: D

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NO.15 BGP Speaker IBGP IGP AS-Path
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

H3C   GB0-283   GB0-283   GB0-283   GB0-283   GB0-283

NO.16 NBMA point-to-multipoint
A. NBMA point-to-multipoint
B. NBMA point-to-multipoint
C. NBMA point-to-multipoint PPP
D. NBMA full-meshed point-to-multipoint
Answer: D

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NO.17 OSPF
A. 88
B. 89
C. 179
D. 520
Answer: B

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NO.18 BGP
A. Origin
B. AS-Path
C. Next-hop
D. MED
E. Local-preference
F. Community
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 OSPF
A. ABR
B. ABR
C. ABR ASBR
D. ASBR
Answer: ABCD

H3C   GB0-283   GB0-283   GB0-283   GB0-283

NO.20 OSPF stub
A. stub stub
B.
C. stub ASBR
D. stub type3 LSA
Answer: B

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NO.21 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABC

H3C   GB0-283   GB0-283

NO.22 IPv4 IPv6
A. 128
B. 164
C. 64
D. 256
Answer: A

H3C examen   GB0-283   GB0-283   GB0-283 examen

NO.23 1 NSSA RouterD ABR RouterD
ospf 1
area 0.0.0.1
network 10.45.0.0 0.0.0.255
nssa default-route-advertise
#
area 0.0.0.0
network 4.4.4.4 0.0.0.0
network 10.34.0.0 0.0.0.255
A. RouterD area1 7 LSA RouterE RouterF LSA
B. RouterD area1 5 LSA RouterE RouterF LSA
C. RouterC RouterD 5 LSA
D.
Answer: A

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NO.24 CAR IP IP CAR LR
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.25 IPSec Security Association
A. IPSec SA
B. SA IPSec
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.26 BGP aggregate 10.110.0.0 255.255.0.0 suppress-policy test
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

H3C   GB0-283   GB0-283

NO.27 BGP EBGP
A. BGP
B. BGP
C. BGP
D.
Answer: C

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NO.28 OSPF cost
A. mtu
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

H3C   GB0-283   GB0-283

NO.29 A.
B. Route-policy
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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Code d'Examen: GD0-100
Nom d'Examen: Guidance Software (Certification Exam For ENCE North America)
Questions et réponses: 172 Q&As

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NO.1 If a floppy diskette is in the ?drive, the computer will always boot to that drive before
any other device. If a floppy diskette is in the ??drive, the computer will always boot to
that drive before any other device.
A. False
B. True
Answer:

NO.2 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s)
that would result. Jan 1 st , 2?0?00
A. Jan 1st , 1900
B. Jan 1st , 2100
C. Jan 1st , 2001
D. Jan 1st , 2000
Answer: D

Guidance Software   certification GD0-100   GD0-100   GD0-100   GD0-100

NO.3 Hash libraries are commonly used to:
A. Compare a file header to a file extension.
B. Identify files that are already known to the user.
C. Compare one hash set with another hash set.
D. Verify the evidence file.
Answer: B

Guidance Software   certification GD0-100   certification GD0-100   certification GD0-100

NO.4 If cluster #3552 entry in the FAT table contains a value of ?? this would mean:
A. The cluster is unallocated
B. The cluster is the end of a file
C. The cluster is allocated
D. The cluster is marked bad
Answer: A

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NO.5 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s)
that would result. Bob@[a-z]+.com
A. Bob@New zealand.com
B. Bob@My-Email.com
C. Bob@America.com
D. Bob@a-z.com
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which is the proper formula for determining the size in bytes of a hard drive that uses
cylinders (C), heads (H), and sectors (S) geometry?
A. C X H + S
B. C X H X S + 512
C. C X H X S X 512
D. C X H X S
Answer: C

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NO.7 The default export folder remains the same for all cases.
A. True
B. False
Answer:

NO.8 Search results are found in which of the following files? Select all that apply.
A. The evidence file
B. The configuration Searches.ini file
C. The case file
Answer: C

Guidance Software examen   certification GD0-100   GD0-100 examen   GD0-100

NO.9 The acronym ASCII stands for:
A. American Standard Communication Information Index
B. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C. Accepted Standard Code for Information Interchange
D. Accepted Standard Communication Information Index
Answer: B

Guidance Software examen   certification GD0-100   GD0-100

NO.10 You are an investigator and have encountered a computer that is running at the home of a
suspect. The computer does not appear to be a part of a network. The operating system is
Windows XP Home. No programs are visibly running. You should:
A. Pull the plug from the back of the computer.
B. Turn it off with the power button.
C. Pull the plug from the wall.
D. Shut it down with the start menu.
Answer: A

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NO.11 ROM is an acronym for:
A. Read Open Memory
B. Random Open Memory
C. Read Only Memory
D. Relative Open Memory
Answer: C

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NO.12 In Unicode, one printed character is composed of ____ bytes of data.
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: C

Guidance Software   GD0-100   GD0-100   GD0-100   GD0-100

NO.13 How are the results of a signature analysis examined?
A. By sorting on the category column in the Table view. By sorting on the category
column in the Table view.
B. By sorting on the signature column in the Table view. By sorting on the signature
column in the Table view.
C. By sorting on the hash sets column in the Table view. By sorting on the hash sets
column in the Table view.
D. By sorting on the hash library column in the Table view. By sorting on the hash
library column in the Table view.
Answer: B

Guidance Software   certification GD0-100   GD0-100

NO.14 A physical file size is:
A. The total size in sectors of an allocated file.
B. The total size of all the clusters used by the file measured in bytes.
C. The total size in bytes of a logical file.
D. The total size of the file including the ram slack in bytes.
Answer: B

Guidance Software   GD0-100   certification GD0-100

NO.15 Within EnCase, clicking on Save on the toolbar affects what file(s)?
A. All of the above
B. The evidence files
C. The open case file
D. The configuration .ini files
Answer: C

Guidance Software   GD0-100 examen   GD0-100 examen   GD0-100

NO.16 If cluster number 10 in the FAT contains the number 55, this means:
A. That cluster 10 is used and the file continues in cluster number 55.
B. That the file starts in cluster number 55 and continues to cluster number 10.
C. That there is a cross-linked file.
D. The cluster number 55 is the end of an allocated file.
Answer: A

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NO.17 The EnCase default export folder is:
A. A case-specific setting that cannot be changed.
B. A case-specific setting that can be changed.
C. A global setting that can be changed.
D. A global setting that cannot be changed.
Answer: B

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NO.18 EnCase uses the _________________ to conduct a signature analysis.
A. Both a and b
B. file signature table
C. hash library
D. file Viewers
Answer: B

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NO.19 EnCase is able to read and examine which of the following file systems?
A. NTFS
B. EXT3
C. FAT
D. HFS
Answer: A,B,C,D

Guidance Software   GD0-100   GD0-100   GD0-100

NO.20 When an EnCase user double-clicks on a file within EnCase what determines the action
that will result? Select all that apply
A. The settings in the case file.
B. The settings in the FileTypes.ini file.
C. The setting in the evidence file.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EW0-300
Nom d'Examen: Extreme Networks (Extreme Networks Specialist....)
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

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NO.1 In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is
the:
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Answer: D

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NO.2 In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP
address.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-300   EW0-300   EW0-300 examen

NO.3 According
to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet
from host A to any of the switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Exhibit:
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host
A (10.10.10.100) and Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

certification Extreme Networks   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300

NO.5 ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their
protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.6 The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band
management port and VLAN. The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port
allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the switch. If you want the switch
to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to enable
ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   EW0-300   EW0-300   EW0-300 examen

NO.7 What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by the BSR towards all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are active
It is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by RP towards all PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Answer: A

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NO.8 How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups:
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by
ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Answer: A

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300

NO.10 Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   EW0-300   EW0-300   EW0-300   EW0-300

NO.11 OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all
attachments are made with a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.12 When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following
traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
Answer: D

Extreme Networks   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300

NO.13 Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose
three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.14 Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis:
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
Answer: D

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-300   certification EW0-300

NO.15 In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port
Translation Mode the physical Port where the node connects to must be configured
as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300   EW0-300 examen

NO.16 An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control
VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring
only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   EW0-300   EW0-300

NO.17 The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP
and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   EW0-300   certification EW0-300   EW0-300

NO.18 On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin
authentication. Extreme provides a vendor specific attribute
Extreme:Extreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is
disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.19 The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: A

certification Extreme Networks   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300

NO.20 An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Answer: D

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NO.21 How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   EW0-300   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300 examen

NO.22 An IP-only IS-IS router (or "IP-only" router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Answer: D

Extreme Networks examen   EW0-300   certification EW0-300

NO.23 On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS
B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
Answer: A

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NO.24 It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path
tree. This switch over will be initiated by:
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
Answer: C

Extreme Networks   certification EW0-300   EW0-300

NO.25 The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

certification Extreme Networks   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300

NO.26 Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the
Radius and Tacacs+features.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.27 In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration
that allows you to connect active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby
switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.28 Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

Extreme Networks   EW0-300   EW0-300 examen

NO.29 EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning
Tree Protocol but one of the big advantages of EAPS is:
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring default
gateway redundancy.
Answer: B

Extreme Networks   EW0-300 examen   EW0-300 examen

NO.30 The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a
cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EX0-107
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security)
Questions et réponses: 233 Q&As

EX0-107 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/EX0-107.html

NO.1 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be
implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this
file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective
security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.2 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.3 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.4 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all
Start regedit.exe
Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.5 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If
you have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24,
allowing root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish
this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.7 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of
the following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.9 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: CE

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NO.10 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing Windows 2003
machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: DE

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NO.13 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is
the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: ABCD

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NO.14 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.15 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some
kind of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.16 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.17 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: BC

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NO.18 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.20 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.21 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of
the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the
call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller
asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

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NO.22 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in the
computer. What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.23 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.24 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.25 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.26 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.27 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network and
computers. Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e
which of the following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.28 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.30 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to un-archiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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