2014年1月31日星期五

ISEB BH0-008, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: BH0-008
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme? a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs. c.Perceived lack of benefits. d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets
green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation?
Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme? a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers. c.Company shareholders. d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT
programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value of green
IT? a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact. b.Redefine their business strategy to
include green initiatives. c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message. d.Provide a green
discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-BA1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories.
Which of the following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.8 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.13 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.14 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.16 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.17 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this
stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: BH0-012
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The Foundation® ITIL (2012 Onwards) )
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?"
step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the
service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified
during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.4 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service
portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster
than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1.Design of the service metrics
2.Business continuity strategy
3.Business impact analysis (BIA)
4.Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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NO.9 What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service design
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service operation
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CISSP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
Questions et réponses: 2137 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.5 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.9 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.11 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.12 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.13 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.15 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.18 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.23 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.26 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.29 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.30 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-274
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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NO.3 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-996
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ.V6.0.Solution Design)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 An organization will use WebSphere MQ to connect its central z/OS systems to its 20 branch
offices. Each of the 20 offices runs applications on an AIX platform. The z/OS system supports
two z/OS LPARs. One is for production and the other is for both development and testing.
Separate AIX machines are available for production and testing and development. There will be
individual queue managers supporting production, testing and development. Which of the
following naming standards is MOST appropriate?
A.Channel names will be .to..
B.z/OS queue manager names will be MQQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and
Development environments.
C.AIX queue manager names will be AMQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and
Development environments.
D.Applications will query a z/OS DB2 table for the name of the correct queue manager to use.
Correct:A

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NO.2 The WebSphere MQ client interface is popular in part because the client software is free, but this
is offset by a number of functional limitations. When deciding whether to deploy an application
with the client interface or with a local queue manager, these must be considered. Which of the
following is NOT a limitation of the WebSphere MQ client?
A.Clients cannot be centrally managed by WebSphere MQ tooling.
B.In the event of a network outage it can be difficult to determine if the last API call was actually
performed.
C.Data cannot be stored as messages by the client in the event of network outages.
D.Transactional processing with local units of work is not supported.
Correct:D

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NO.3 Which of the following message standards is MOST appropriate for an enterprise that needs to
tag each application message with a 48 byte identifier?
A.Use the CorrelId field in the MQMD.
B.Use the ReplyToQ field from the MQMD.
C.Use the CorrelId field in the transmission queue header (MQXQH).
D.Use a customer specified message header to precede application data.
Correct:D

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NO.4 An application publishes documents in PDF format as WebSphere MQ RFH2 messages to a wide
range of recipient platforms. Which of the following is critical to ensure the documents are
processed correctly?
A.The National Language support on the recipient systems must match the code page with which the
PDF document was created.
B.The message format in the MQMD must be specified as MQFMT_NONE.
C.The PDF document size must not exceed 4MB.
D.This is only supported on Windows platforms.
Correct:B

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NO.5 A large enterprise has an MQ-based messaging infrastructure to support a diverse range of
applications across multiple platforms. A number of the applications are JAVA based. Some
execute in an iSeries environment. The enterprise must now begin to exchange messages with its
business partners using WebSphere MQ. Which of the following is the MOST important
consideration for the messages passed between the applications?
A.Data conversion issues are simplified if all messages are character strings.
B.The format for all messages must be an industry standard such as EDI, RosettaNet, cbXML, etc.
C.All messages must be digitally signed before being transmitted to the business partner.
D.All messages need to be encrypted before being transmitted to the business partner.
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: 000-807
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Web Services Dev for IBM Web Sphere App Server V6.1)
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Which interface in SAAJ generically represents any literal part in a SOAP message?
A. javax.xml.soap.Text
B. javax.xml.soap.Node
C. javax.xml.soap.DetailEntry
D. javax.xml.soap.SOAPElement
E. javax.xml.soap.SOAPBodyElement
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which describes a Java return type for a Java method?
A. <wsdl:message>
B. <wsdl:part>
C. <wsdl:output>
D. <wsdl:fault>
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the output of the Bean2WebService tool?
A. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI) file
B. An EAR file
C. A WSDL file
D. web.xml and webservices.xml files
Answer: B

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NO.4 WSDL faults are mapped to which three Java classes?
A. javax.wsdl.WSDLFault
B. javax.wsdl.WSDLException
C. java.rmi.RemoteException
D. javax.xml.rpc.handler.Exception
E. javax.xml.rpc.soap.SOAPFaultException
F. Service-specific Java exception
Answer: CEF

IBM examen   000-807   000-807

NO.5 In addition to usernametoken and digestvalue, which other predefined keywords are supported by
WebSphere Application Server for encryption?
A. bodycontent
B. body
C. timestamp
D. passwordtoken
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is NOT a prerequisite for a service implementation defined in a Session EJB Web service?
A. The Session EJB must have a default public constructor.
B. The remote interface of the Session EJB must implement the endpoint interface.
C. The Session EJB must have a default EJB create method.
D. The Session EJB must have one or more remote methods.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807

NO.7 For the following SOAP fault, which is a mandatory field that contains a human-readable description
of the fault occurred?<SOAP-ENV:Fault xmlns=""> <faultcode> value1 </faultcode> <faultstring> value2
</faultstring><faultactor> value3 </faultactor><detail> <e:faultNod xmlns:e="http://faultNod"><e:message>
value4 </e:message><e:errorcode> value5 </errorcode>
</e:faultNod> </detail> </SOAP-ENV:Fault>
A. value1
B. value2
C. value3
D. value4
E. value5
Answer: B

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NO.8 The following WSDL snippet represents which message transmission style?<wsdl:portType .... >
<wsdl:operation name="someOperation"> <wsdl:output name="oname" message="somename"/>
<wsdl:input name="iname" message="anothername"/> </wsdl:operation> </wsdl:portType .... >
A. One-way
B. Request-response
C. Solicit-response
D. Notification
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three are WS-Security wizards in Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Add XML Encryption
B. Add XML Signature
C. Add WS Federation
D. Add WS Secure Conversation
E. Add WS Security Policy
F. Add Stand Alone Security Token
G. Add SAML Support
Answer: ABF

IBM   000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807

NO.10 In which scenario should Web service traffic be secured at the transport level over the message level?
A. Security information must be kept intact from the client to the Web service, regardless of the underlying
transport.
B. Messages are passed between multiple intermediaries, multiple transports.
C. Only parts of the message need to be kept confidential.
D. High performance and security are top concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Several methods have been proposed for supporting binary data in Web services. Which method is
effectively obsolete at this point?
A. Base 64 Encoding
B. SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
C. WS-Attachments with Direct Internet Message Encapsulation (DIME)
D. Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Answer: C

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NO.12 In a top-down creation of a Web service, what does the WSDL portType map to?
A. A Java method invocation
B. A Stateless session EJB
C. A JAX-RPC mapping
D. A Service Endpoint Interface (SEI)
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are the prerequisites for creating a Web service from an EJB using SOAP/HTTP transport in
Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project Deploy the enterprise bean Create an EJB router project
B. Create an EAR project Create an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB project
C. Create an EJB project Create or import an enterprise bean into the EJB projectDeploy the enterprise
beanCreate a Web project
D. Create an EAR projectCreate an EJB project and add it to the EAR project Create or import an
enterprise bean into the EJB projectCreate an EJB router projectDeploy the router project
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which server-side configuration task should be performed to reduce the chances of a replay attack?
A. Add a binary security token in the Request Generator Configuration -> Security Token section
B. Require a timestamp in the Request Consumer Configuration -> Add Timestamp section
C. Add a nonce word to encrypted parts, through the Request Generator Configuration -> Confidentiality
section
D. Require a nonce word in digital signatures, through the Request Consumer Configuration -> Required
Integrity section
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which task can the _setProperty method in the javax.xml.rpc.Stub interface be used to perform?
A. To configure the document style in the SOAP message
B. To change the parameter of a Web service operation
C. To modify the target service endpoint address
D. To enable Transport Level Security (TLS)
Answer: C

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NO.16 When creating an EJB Web service using the WSDL2Java command, what must be included on the
command line?
A. type ejb
B. implementation ejb
C. container ejb
D. create ejb
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807   000-807

NO.17 Which command line utility can be use to create a Web service using a bottom-up approach?
A. Java2WSDL
B. WSDL2Java
C. Java2WS
D. XML2WSDL
Answer: A

IBM   000-807   000-807   000-807

NO.18 By default, which security token type does WebSphere Application Server V6.1 NOT support?
A. username token
B. binary security token, including the X.509 certificate
C. LTPA token
D. Kerberos token
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is out of scope for the JSR 921 specification?
A. SOAP 1.1 and SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
B. WSDL 1.1
C. UDDI 1.0
D. Basic reliable message semantics
Answer: D

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NO.20 In WebSphere Application Server V6.1, 'trust method' is part of which collection?
A. Required Integrity
B. Required Confidentiality
C. Required security token
D. Caller
E. Add time stamp
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-807   000-807

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Code d'Examen: 000-418
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Websphere Datastage V.8.0)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 When tuning a parallel process, it is necessary to measure the amount of system resources that are
used by each instance of a stage. Which two methods enable the collection of CPU time used by each
instance of a stage? (Choose two.)
A. Set the environment variable $APT_PM_PLAYER_TIMING=true.
B. Invoke vmstat before the job run and after the job completes.
C. Select the Record job performance data check box from Job Properties.
D. Set the environment variable $DS_MAKE_JOB_REPORT=2.
Answer: AC

IBM examen   000-418   000-418 examen

NO.2 Your job is to setup credential mappings for DataStage developers within DataStage. Which two
statements are true?(Choose two.)
A. You must be a Information Server Suite administrator to complete this task.
B. You can create Information Server Suite users and groups in the Web console.
C. You can create new Information Server Suite users by using the DataStage Administrator.
D. You can create new users in the operating system level and map these credentials within DataStage
Administrator.
Answer: AB

certification IBM   000-418   000-418

NO.3 A job design reads from a complex flat file, performs some transformations on the data, and outputs
the results to a WISD output stage. What are two ways that parameter values can be passed to this job at
run-time? (Choose two.)
A. Pass the parameter values at the time of the service request.
B. Change the properties of the information provider and redeploy.
C. Include the parameter values in the data.
D. Execute a DSSetParam with the values at job execution time.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Which three actions can improve sort performance in a DataStage job? (Choose three.)
A. Specify only the key columns which are necessary.
B. Use the stable-sort option to avoid the random ordering of non-key data.
C. Minimize the number of sorts used within a job flow.
D. Adjusting the "Restrict Memory Usage" option in the Sort stage.
E. Run the job sequentially so that only one sort process is invoked.
Answer: ACD

IBM   000-418 examen   000-418

NO.5 Which three lookup types may be performed in the Lookup stage? (Choose three.)
A. Equality match
B. Negative match
C. Range on stream link
D. Range on the reject link
E. Range on the reference link
Answer: ACE

IBM   certification 000-418   certification 000-418   certification 000-418   certification 000-418

NO.6 Which two methods can be used for adding messages to a message handler? (Choose two.)
A. Import message handler from existing message handler dsx.
B. Drag and drop a message from the job log onto the message handler.
C. Type in the message rule by hand.
D. Use the add rule to message hander interface.
Answer: CD

IBM   certification 000-418   000-418

NO.7 Which two steps are required to change from a normal lookup to a sparse lookup in an ODBC
Enterprise stage?(Choose two.)
A. Change the lookup option in the stage properties to "Sparse".
B. Replace columns at the beginning of a SELECT statement with a wildcard asterisk (*).
C. Establish a relationship between the key field column in the source stage with the database table field.
D. Sort the data on the reference link.
Answer: AC

IBM   000-418   000-418   000-418 examen

NO.8 Which three statements are true about File Sets? (Choose three.)
A. File sets are partitioned.
B. File sets are unpartitioned.
C. File sets are stored as a single file.
D. File sets are readable by external applications.
E. File sets are stored as header file and data files.
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 Your job uses the MQ connector stage to read messages from an MQ queue. The job should retrieve
the message ID into the MessageID field and parse the payload into two fields: Name is to get the first ten
characters, Description is toget the remaining characters.What will accomplish this?
A. First column is MessageID as Binary 24; second column is Name as Binary 10; select
WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element; third column is Description as VarBinary 200; select
WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element.
B. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field;second
column isDescription as VarBinary 200; third column is Name as Binary 10.
C. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field; second
column is Name; select WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element; third column is Description; select
WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element.
D. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field; second
column is Nameas Binary 10; third column is Description as VarBinary 200.
Answer: D

IBM   000-418   000-418   certification 000-418

NO.10 You have created a parallel job in which there are several stages that you want to be able to re-use in
other jobs. Youdecided to create a parallel shared container from these stages. Identify two things that
are true about this shared container. (Choose two.)
A. It can be used in sequencer jobs.
B. It can take advantage of Run Time Column Propagation (RCP).
C. It can be used in Transformer stage derivations.
D. It can have job parameters to resolve stage property values.
Answer: BD

IBM   000-418   000-418   000-418

NO.11 A DataStage job is sourcing a flat file which contains a VARCHAR field. This field needs to be mapped
to a targetfield which is a date. Which will accomplish this?
A. Use a Column Exporter to perform the type conversion.
B. DataStage handles the type conversion automatically.
C. Use the TimestampFromDateTime function in a Transformer.
D. Use the Modify stage to perform the type conversion.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-418   000-418   certification 000-418

NO.12 What is the lowest CPU cost partitioning method for parallel stage to parallel stage?
A. Range
B. Modulus
C. Entire
D. Same
Answer: D

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, a Funnel stage has two Input Links. Input 1(Seq_File) comes
from a sequential file with set "Readers per Node" set to "2" , Input 2(Dataset) comes from a Data Set
created in parallel (three-way parallel). Within the Funnelstage, the funnel type is set to "Sequence". The
parallel configuration file contains three nodes.How many instances of the Funnel stage run in parallel?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: C

IBM   000-418 examen   certification 000-418   000-418   certification 000-418

NO.14 When invoking a job from a third-party scheduler, it is often desirable to invoke a job and wait for its
completion in order to return the job's completion status. Which three commands would invoke a job
named "BuildWarehouse" in project DevProject and wait for the job's completion? (Choose three.)
A. dsjob -run -log DevProject BuildWarehouse
B. dsjob -run -jobstatus DevProject BuildWarehouse
C. dsjob -run -userstatus DevProject BuildWarehouse
D. dsjob -run DevProject BuildWarehouse
E. dsjob -run -wait DevProject BuildWarehouse
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 What describes the column information specified in Orchestrate schemas? (Choose two.)
A. C++ data types, such as string[max 145]
B. column properties, such as nullability
C. SQL data types, such as Char(20)
D. record format information, such as record delimiter
Answer: AB

certification IBM   certification 000-418   000-418

NO.16 A parallel job combines rows from a source DB2 table with historical information maintained in two
separate Oracle tables. Only rows in the DB2 source whose key values match either Oracle table are
output to a target Teradata table. Both Oracle tables have identical column definitions and are stored in
the same Oracle instance. Which two design techniques would satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Using a master DB2 Enterprise stage, merge by dropping unmatched masters against a single Oracle
Enterprise stage with custom SQL with UNION ALL.
B. Combine the inputs from the DB2 Enterprise stage and two Oracle Enterprise stages using the Sort
options of theFunnel stage defined onthe key columns.
C. Use a separate Oracle Enterprise stage for each source table to a Funnel stage and then perform an
inner join withrows from a DB2 Enterprise stage.
D. Use a Lookup stage to combine the DB2 Enterprise input with each Oracle Enterprise reference link
using rangepartitioning to limit each reference by historical data values.
Answer: AC

IBM examen   certification 000-418   000-418

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.You are asked to convert a relational source, as shown in the exhibit, into
three separate XML files. How would you accomplish this task?
A. Set "Output mode" setting "Aggregate all rows" under "Transformation Settings" of the Output link of an
XML Output stage.
B. Set "Output mode" setting "Use Trigger" on column "Customer ID" under "Transformation Settings" of
the Output link of an XML Output stage.
C. Set "Output mode" setting "Separate rows" on column "Customer ID" under "Transformation Settings"
of the Output link of an XML Output stage.
D. Set "Output mode" setting "Single row" under "Transformation Settings" of the Output link of an XML
Output stage.
Answer: D

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NO.18 In which two situations would you use the Web Services Client stage? (Choose two.)
A. You want to deploy a service.
B. You need the Web service to act as either a data source or a data target during an operation.
C. You do not need both input and output links in a single web service operation.
D. You need to create a WSDL.
Answer: BC

IBM   000-418   000-418

NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, how many parallel partitions will each DataStage operator run
without specifying a "node pool andresource constraint" or actual "node constraint"?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

IBM   000-418   certification 000-418   000-418   000-418

NO.20 You are working on a job in which a sequential file cannot be read in parallel. In an attempt to improve
job performance, you first define a single large string column for the non-parallel sequential file read.
Which stage may be used to parse the large string in parallel?
A. the Column Import stage
B. the Column Export stage
C. the Make Vector stage
D. the Split Vector stage
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: COG-300
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 42 Q&As

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NO.1 When a report requires data from multiple views, what must be inserted into an Active Form?
A.A title element
B.A chart
C.A section
D.A cube
Answer:C

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NO.2 When reviewing data that will be uploaded into a cube, the rows and columns are static. Which of the
following would an analyst use?
A.Dynamic Slice
B.Cube View
C.Active Form
D.Classic Slice
Answer:D

IBM   COG-300   COG-300   COG-300 examen

NO.3 Which worksheet function enables the end user to create their own subsets from the title dimensions?
A.DNEXT
B.VIEW
C.DFIRST
D.SUBNM
Answer:D

IBM   certification COG-300   COG-300   COG-300

NO.4 Why would an analyst create a subset?
A.To quickly see the top level elements.
B.To quickly see the top 5 values in a cube.
C.To change the dimension order.
D.To change the cube structure.
Answer:A

IBM   certification COG-300   certification COG-300   COG-300

NO.5 Why would an analyst create a snapshot of a cube?
A.To access data with the In-spreadsheet browser.
B.To access data without access to a TM1 server.
C.To access data on a TM1 server.
D.To access data using TM1 web.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: LOT-701
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 Sally has a JavaScript library design element in a Domino application that was last signed by a
developer who no longer works for the company. What new feature can she use in ND7 to resign that
single design element with her ID?
A. Edit the JavaScript library design element and resave it.
B. Highlight the library in Domino Designer and click the Sign button.
C. Click the Sign button on the Design tab of the Design Properties box.
D. Launch the Administrator client and use Tools - Sign - Script Libraries.
Answer: B

IBM examen   LOT-701   LOT-701 examen

NO.2 Bertha has a number of open Notes documents in her Notes client, and she would like to quickly close
all the tabs at once. How can she do this?
A. Actions - Close All Tabs
B. File - Close Current Open
C. Actions - Close Current Open
D. File - Close All Open Window Tabs
Answer: D

IBM   LOT-701   LOT-701   certification LOT-701   LOT-701

NO.3 Tom needs to add a form alias named frmInvoice to his Invoice form design element. How can he add
this information to the form design?
A. Add the alias in the Alias field in the Form Properties dialog box.
B. On the Object tab in the Programmer's pane, select Alias and add the form alias.
C. Select the Invoice form in the Domino Designer client and click in the Alias column to edit the alias.
D. Delete the existing form and recreate it, specifying the alias name when the form is initially created.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jose needs to modify a Domino application that has a Web service as part of the application design.
Where can he find the Web service design element?
A. Other - Web Services
B. Shared Code - Agents
C. Shared Code - Web Services
D. Shared Resources - Web Services
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification LOT-701   LOT-701   certification LOT-701

NO.5 Jackie has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, and she needs to make sure the
action buttons are all using standard Notes icons. What new feature in Domino Designer can she check to
find this information?
A. The Icon Type section of the Design Synopsis.
B. The shared actions design column for icon type.
C. The Icon field in the Shared Action property dialog box.
D. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Tony has deleted a Shared Column in Domino Designer, but it was still used in a view. What will
happen to that column in the view?
A. The column will remain in the view.
B. The column will be flagged as "hidden".
C. The column will be deleted from the view.
D. Domino Designer will not let you delete a Shared Column that is still being used in at least one view.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Gail has a complex column defined in an existing view in her Domino application. She would like to use
this column in four other views. How should she make this a shared column to be used in the other views?
A. Select the column and choose Create - Copy As Shared Column.
B. Select the Share this column option in the Column Properties dialog box.
C. Copy the column into the other views and choose Share this column in the Column Properties dialog
box.
D. Copy the column from the existing design and paste it into the Shared Column design area in Domino
Designer.
Answer: A

IBM examen   LOT-701   LOT-701   certification LOT-701   certification LOT-701   LOT-701

NO.8 What information is reported on the Profile document for an agent that has been profiled?
A. Class, Method, Operation, Calls, Time
B. Statement, Execution Count, Execution Time
C. Start Time, End Time, Total Statements Executed
D. Agent, Server, Statement, Calls, Milliseconds Run
Answer: A

IBM   LOT-701   LOT-701

NO.9 Rebecca has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, but she needs to quickly
determine which actions display in the action bar and which actions display in the menu. What feature in
Domino Designer can she check to find this information?
A. The Shared Action Location section of the Design Synopsis.
B. The Location field in the Shared Action property dialog box.
C. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.
D. The shared actions design columns for action bar and menu locations.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Tony needs to change a Shared Column formula, but he needs to know what views will be affected by
this change. How can Tony determine which views use a specific Shared Column?
A. In Domino Designer, Tools - Find Shared Columns
B. In Domino Designer, File - Database - Design Synopsis
C. In Domino Designer, Design - Design Properties - Shared Column Use
D. In Domino Designer, Shared Columns - Who is using this Shared Column
Answer: D

IBM   certification LOT-701   LOT-701

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