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Code d'Examen: JN0-360
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
Questions et réponses: 252 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-201
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which label operation is performed by an MPLS transit router?
A. inject
B. pop
C. push
D. swap
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about MPLS VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. With Layer 3 VPNs, the provider's routers participate in the customer's Layer 3 routing.
B. MPLS VPNs are designed to run over private networks rather than the public Internet.
C. With Layer 2 VPNs, the provider does not participate in the routing of the customer's private IP
traffic.
D. MPLS VPN tunnels are always encrypted.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 What are Martian addresses on a Junos device?
A. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with MPLS VPNs.
B. IP addresses that are never installed in the routing table.
C. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with GRE tunnels.
D. IP addresses specifically used for out-of-band management.
Answer: A

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7. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a generated and an aggregate
route?
A. An aggregate route can be a supernet whereas generated routes are classful.
B. A generated route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
C. An aggregate route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
D. Only aggregate routes can be re-advertised through BGP using a policy.
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true regarding the default master routing instance?
A. All IPv4 routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
B. Interface routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
C. Routes in the master routing instance are not shared with user-defined routing instances.
D. All routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
Answer: C

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9. Which routing table contains the route information for the user-defined routing instance
called Candidate1?
A. inet.Candidate1.0
B. Candidate1.inet.0
C. inet.0
D. Candidate1-inet.0
Answer: B

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10. Which two routing-instance types are used for non-VPN-related applications? (Choose two.)
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. vpls
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which Junos platform supports provider bridging?
A. T Series devices
B. SRX Series devices
C. MX Series devices
D. MAG Series devices
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which environment would you run BGP?
A. a company spread across multiple floors of a building
B. a company with a single office
C. a home network
D. the public Internet
Answer: C

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NO.6 For a network running single-area OSPF, how would you decrease the size of the link-state
database (LSDB)?
A. Implement RIP as an overlay protocol on all devices.
B. Add more devices to the OSPF network to help with LSDB processing.
C. Reduce the frequency of hello timers throughout the network.
D. Implement OSPF areas.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JN0-120
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.e(jncia-e))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-341
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (ER.Associate(JNCIA-ER))
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JN0-330
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (JN0-330-Enhanced Services, Specialist(JNCIS-ES))
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to advertise
customer networks into the provider's IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces in 5
virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.6 What does the SRP distribute to the line modules when a routing table changes?
A. updated RIB-Out
B. link-state information
C. an incremental update
D. the complete routing table
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given the following router output, which configuration file will the router use at its next reload?
A. config
B. clientqos.cnf
C. startup-config
D. running-configuration
Answer: D

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NO.8 By default, how does the router handle changes to its operational configuration?
A. Changes are not implemented, but are saved automatically.
B. Changes are not implemented and must be written into memory.
C. Changes are implemented immediately and saved automatically.
D. Changes are implemented immediately, but must be written into memory.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-521
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.4 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.13 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.14 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.15 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.16 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.17 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.25 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.26 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.27 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.30 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JN0-321
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (DX, Associate(JNCIA-DX))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 In which section of the WebUI does the administrator create and apply AppRules?
A. SLB
B. Cluster
C. Forwarder
D. Redirector
Answer: B

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NO.2 In the Juniper DX Unified Failover configuration, the VMAC is active on whichdevice(s)?
A. The Standby DX(s)
B. The Master DX and the Active Server(s)
C. The Master DX
D. All DXs in the Unified Failover group
Answer: C

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NO.3 An enterprise uses a Webtiered application that provides NTLM enduserauthentication.What is the
required Cluster option?
A. DSR
B. Connect Method
C. Connection Binding
D. Sticky Load Balancing
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true about "sticky" load balancing for Clusters?
A. The "clientip" setting does not apply to clusters, it only pertains to a Forwarder.
B. When set to "clientip" it uses the client's IP address to bind the client to a particular target server.
C. When set to "clientip" it ensures that all subsequent requests are directed to the same client that made
the initial request.
D. When set to "clientip" it allows a DX sticky cookie to be sent to and stored by the client based on the IP
address.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three statements are correct using nitro.apprule on any web application? (Choosethree.)
A. Nitro.apprule provides advance http security on HTTPS applications.
B. Nitro.apprule provides caching on HTTP and HTTPS applications.
C. Nitro.apprule provides transaction guarantee on HTTP application.
D. Nitro.apprule improves client response time on HTTP applications.
E. Nitro.apprule provides advanced authentication on HTTPS applications.
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 What do you need to upgrade the DXOS?
A. an upgrade .tar file placed on your SCP server
B. an upgrade CD provided by your Juniper Networks representative
C. an upgrade .pac file placed on your TFTP or SCP server
D. an upgrade .gz file placed on your FTP server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which steps are required to use the Juniper DXs ActiveN functionality?
A. Enable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
enableActiveN, synchronize configuration.
B. Disable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
enableActiveN, synchronize configuration.
C. Enable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
selectActiveN load balancing policy, enable sticky.
D. Disable DSR for your cluster, create ActiveN blades, create ActiveN groups and addblades,
selectActiveN load balancing policy, enable sticky.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which AppRule type is used to configure 3G caching?
A. PTH
B. RS
C. RTH
D. PTC
Answer: A

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NO.9 When running SSL on a nonweb application, where are the secure connections made?
A. between the client and the DX appliance and between the DX appliance and the target servers
B. directly between the client and the target server(s)
C. between the client and the DX appliance
D. between the DX appliance and the target server(s)
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two are initial configuration steps using the console? (Choose two.)
A. Enable HTTPS for WebUI access.
B. Agree to the license.
C. Configure fullyqualified domain name.
D. Configure console port parameters.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which HTTP return code should be verified when configuring the cache?
A. 302
B. 200
C. 304
D. 501
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your administrator wants to centralize logs from the DX appliance and Cluster. Whichtwo protocols
areavailable to export those logs? (Choose two.)
A. SMTP
B. syslog
C. SCP
D. TFTP
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which system elements are exported when using the system snapshot feature?
A. tsdump, tcpdump, current debug and memory states
B. current memory states
C. system process data, system logs, system debug statistics and system passkeys
D. system software, users, configuration, licenses, app rules, SSL certificates and keys
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-321   JN0-321

NO.14 Which two functions require the use of the CLI? (Choose two.)
A. running a tcpdump
B. adding a VLAN
C. adding a cluster
D. adding a target server
Answer: AB

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NO.15 In the WebUI, which method will determine if a Cluster target host is available?
A. Click Statistics > Cluster Groups
B. Click Dashboard > Cluster group name
C. Click Services > Cluster Groups
D. Click Log > Audit
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which CLI command is used for analysis and troubleshooting of real time trafficcapture?
A. tcpdump
B. show server stats
C. tsdump
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.17 An enterprise has an internal web application that needs stickiness managed by aCluster. All
employeesaccess the application through a proxy. What is the correct sticky load balancing policy?
A. url persistency
B. cookie persistency
C. urlhash
D. default persistency
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which protocols are used to export and import configurations?
A. TFTP or SCP
B. TFTP or SMTP
C. FTP or SCP
D. FTP or TFTP
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two benefits does the Juniper DX provide? (Choose two.)
A. It offloads TCP connections from servers.
B. It spools email messages.
C. It offloads SSL from servers.
D. It compresses images.
Answer: AC

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NO.20 A health care organization has a Juniper DX placed in front of a web server. Theycurrently have
listensideSSL enabled to encrypt traffic from the client to the DX appliance. Due to privacyconcerns, they
havedecided to enable SSL from the client to the server for endtoend SSL. Which twosteps are required
toenable endtoend encryption? (Choose two).
A. Disable clientside SSL on the DX and enable Unified SSL.
B. Enable targetside SSL on the DX.
C. Configure a Redirector on the DX to redirect browsers to the HTTPS port.
D. Enable SSL on the web server.
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: JN0-560
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

Juniper examen   JN0-560   JN0-560

NO.5 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.6 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.8 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

certification Juniper   JN0-560   JN0-560

NO.18 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-660
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-SP))
Questions et réponses: 247 Q&As

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NO.1 In which two ways does VPLS populate the MAC table? (Choose two.)
A. dynamically using BGP
B. dynamically using the source MAC address on received frames
C. dynamically using LDP
D. statically using CLI
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which MPLS feature was used to make the LSP the preferred path for internal
routes.?
A. traffic engineering bgp-igp
B. traffic engineering shortcuts
C. traffic engineering mpls-forwarding
D. install active
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are provisioning a new customer for access to your Layer 3 VPN. The customer is using
172.16.35.0/24 as their internal IP address space, which is also being used by an existing Layer 3 VPN
customer. The two customers share many PE routers in common across your network. Which mechanism
allows these duplicate addresses to exist in your network?
A. route origin
B. route target
C. route refresh
D. route distinguisher
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, you have an adaptive LSP that requires 85 Mbps. The LSP is configured with a
primary path and a secondary path in standby mode. All connections in the MPLS network are Fast
Ethernet. Which statement is correct?
A. The primary and secondary paths are in an up state and operational.
B. The primary and secondary paths are in a down state and not operational.
C. The secondary path is in a down state and not operational.
D. The primary path is in a down state and not operational.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, ISP A is charged a higher rate for traffic sent to R2. You are asked to lower costs for ISP A
by configuring R1 to send traffic to R3 whenever possible.
What are two ways to do this? (Choose two.)
A. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 120
B. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 80
C. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 120
D. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 80
Answer: B, C

Juniper   certification JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the drop profile in the exhibit, what is the drop probability when the buffer reaches 90% full?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 90%
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-660   JN0-660 examen

NO.7 Which two statements are true about OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 uses a 32-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
B. OSPFv3 uses a 128-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
C. OSPFv3 routes are always preferred over OSPFv2 routes for all traffic.
D. OSPFv3 and OSPFv2 can be configured at the same time.
Answer: A, D

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NO.8 Which CoS feature supports per-VLAN queuing and scheduling?
A. multilevel scheduling
B. hierarchical scheduling
C. tagged queuing
D. per-instance queuing
Answer: C

certification Juniper   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.9 You manage an MPLS network where the PE devices consist of multiple vendors.
You are asked to conceal the MPLS topology for all LSPs.
Which global configuration parameter will accomplish this?
A. Configure no-decrement-ttl on the ingress router only.
B. Configure no-propagate-ttl on the ingress router only.
C. Configure no-decrement-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
D. Configure no-propagate-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-660   certification JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
All networks shown in the exhibit contain more than one BGP speaking router. You operate ISP A.
You must ensure that customer Y sends their traffic to you over the directly connected link but customer Y
is not used for transit into your network. What do you do to accomplish this? A. Advertise routes to
customer Y with the well-known no-transit community.
B. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known no-advertise community.
C. Advertise routes to customer Y with the well-known no-export community.
D. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known as-transit community.
Answer: C

Juniper   certification JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.11 Your multicast receivers are indirectly connected to an MX Series router. The receivers need to join
multicast group 224.2.2.2. What must be configured in IGMP to receive report messages from receivers
that are multiple hops away?
A. By default, IGMP accepts report messages from indirectly connected receivers.
B. Promiscuous mode must be enabled in IGMP.
C. Promiscuous mode must be disabled in IGMP.
D. DVMRP protocol must be configured.
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-660 examen   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
All routers in the exhibit are running IS-IS level 2 routing. The wide-metrics-only parameter is configured
on all routers. Which metric does R1 see for the path to R4?
A. 136
B. 138
C. 310
D. 320
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-660   JN0-660 examen

NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
On your MX Series router, traffic using the critical scheduler is out of profile. All other data is currently in
profile. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The critical queue is serviced before the less-critical queue.
B. The critical queue is serviced after the left-over queue.
C. The critical queue is serviced before the data queue.
D. The critical queue is serviced before the voice queue.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are the administrator for a network that uses IBGP. As the network grows, you must examine
options to support increased scale.
Which two scaling options should you consider? (Choose two.)
A. route reflection
B. areas
C. zones
D. confederations
Answer: B, C

Juniper   certification JN0-660   JN0-660 examen   JN0-660

NO.15 Your are the administrator for a network that uses IS-IS as its IGP. As the network grows, you find that
the protocol's default capabilities for setting metrics is limiting your options. Which feature can you
implement to provide a larger range of metric configuration capabilities?
A. extended metrics
B. wide metrics
C. expanded metrics
D. full metrics
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-660 examen   certification JN0-660

NO.16 Which operational mode command displays the number of configured forwarding classes?
A. show interfaces queue ge-1/0/0
B. show interfaces terse
C. show class-of-service interface
D. show forwarding classes
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-660 examen   certification JN0-660

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, Area 1 is a not-so-stubby area.
Three networks are redistributed into Area 1 on R2.
You must summarize the redistributed network addresses in Area 1 so that only one network prefix is
re-advertised into Area 0. You must also summarize the loopback addresses of R1 and R2 into a single
address in Area 0.Which configuration sample on R3 and R5 will complete this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to configure an OSPF network based on the topology shown in the exhibit. You must keep
the link-state database in Area 1 as small as possible. What will accomplish this?
A. Area 0 should be configured as a stub area so that it will not announce routes into Area 1.
B. Area 1 should be configured as an NSSA to limit the size of the link-state database.
C. Area 1 should be configured as a stub area with no-summaries to limit the size of the link-state
database.
D. Area 0 should be configured with a virtual link to R4 to limit the size of the Area 1 link-state database.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of traffic protection mechanism is used for the LSP?
A. fast-reroute
B. link-protection
C. node-link-protection
D. secondary
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
B. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the mpls.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
C. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
D. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet6.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-370
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (QFabric, Specialist (JNCIS-QF))
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

certification Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533 examen   JN0-533

NO.4 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533   certification JN0-533

NO.5 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533

NO.6 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533   JN0-533   JN0-533

NO.8 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533   JN0-533 examen   JN0-533

NO.9 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

certification Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533   certification JN0-533

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JN0-541
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (IDP, Associate(JNCIA-IDP))
Questions et réponses: 230 Q&As

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NO.1 Which TCP port is used for communication between Security Manager and an IDP sensor?
A. 7801
B. 7800
C. 7803
D. 443
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which rule base would detect the use of nmap on a network?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: B

certification Juniper   JN0-541   certification JN0-541

NO.3 You update your attack object database on Security Manager. What must you do before the new attack
objects become active on the IDP sensors?
A. You install the updated security policy on the IDP sensor.
B. No changes are required.
C. You must restart the IDP sensor.
D. You must restart the IDP processes on the IDP sensors.
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541

NO.4 On a sensor, which command will indicate if log messages are being sent to Security Manager.?
A. scio vr list
B. serviceidp status
C. scio agentstats display
D. scio getsystem
Answer: C

certification Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541   JN0-541   JN0-541 examen

NO.5 Which statement about the Enterprise Security Profiler (ESP) is true?
A. The ESP must be configured and started using the IDP sensor CLI before it is used.
B. The administrator must manually initiate Security Manager to sensor polling to retrieve ESP data.
C. The ESP must be configured and started on each IDP sensor manually, using the Security Manager
GUI.
D. The ESP is started by default in IDP version 4.0 or newer.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which OSI layer(s) of a packet does the IDP sensor examine?
A. layers 2-7
B. layers 2-4
C. layer 7 only
D. layers 4-7
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541

NO.7 A newly re-imaged sensor is running IDP 4.0 code. You want to assign IP address
10.1.1.1 to the sensor. Which method do you use to do this?
A. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as root, and answer theEasyConfig
B. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as root, and run ipconfig.
C. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as admin, and answer theEasyConfig
D. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as admin, and run ipconfig.
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541 examen

NO.8 When connecting to a sensor using SSH, which account do you use to login?
A. admin
B. super
C. netscreen
D. root
Answer: A

certification Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541

NO.9 Which two will change the management IP of an IDP sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the existing IDP sensor object in Security Manager GUI and change the IP address.
B. Delete the IDP sensor object from Security Manager and re-add the sensor with the new IP address.
C. Useifconfig to change the management IP address.
D. Use the ACM to change the management IP address.
Answer: B,D

Juniper   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541   JN0-541

NO.10 Which statement is true regarding IDP rule matching on a sensor?
A. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further.
B. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
C. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further.
D. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541

NO.11 Which three fields in a packet must match an IDP rule before that packet is examined for an attack?
(Choose three.)
A. terminate match
B. service
C. destination address
D. source address
E. attack object
Answer: B,C,D

Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541

NO.12 Which statement is true about packet capture in the IDP sensor?
A. The Log Viewer has no indication of whether a log message has associated packet captures.
B. You can only log packets after an attack packet.
C. You can configure a particular number of packets to capture before and after an attack.
D. Packet capture records all packets flowing through the sensor.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541

NO.13 Which statement is true about the attack object database update process?
A. Each sensor updates its own attack object database automatically; however they must be able to
access the Juniper site on TCP port 443.
B. The attack object database update must be manually performed by the administrator, and the
administrator must manually install it on each sensor.
C. The attack object database update can be initiated manually or automatically.
D. The attack object database update can be automatically scheduled to occur using the Security
Manager GUI.
Answer: C

Juniper examen   certification JN0-541   JN0-541

NO.14 Which command on the IDP sensor CLI can be used to display the sensor statistics, which policy is
installed, and mode of sensor deployment?
A. sctop "s" option
B. sensor statistics can only be displayed from Security Manager GUI
C. scio list s0 sensor stat
D. scio sensor stat
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541   JN0-541   certification JN0-541   JN0-541

NO.15 After you enable alerts for new hosts that are detected by the Enterprise Security Profiler, where do you
look in Security Manager to see those alerts?
A. Security Monitor > Profiler > Application Profiler tab
B. Security Monitor > Profiler > Violation Viewer tab
C. Security Monitor > Profiler > Network Profiler tab
D. Log Viewer > Profiler Log
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541

NO.16 Which type of cable do you use for a console connection to an IDP sensor?
A. CAT 5 cable
B. Juniper proprietary cable
C. straight-through serial cable
D. null-modem cable
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is one use of an IP action?
A. It blocks subsequent connections from specific IP addresses.
B. It modifies the IP header to redirect the attack.
C. It modifies the IP header to prevent the attack.
D. It permits or denies the traffic, based on the IP header.
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541   certification JN0-541   certification JN0-541

NO.18 What is "a deviation from a protocol's expected behavior or packet format"?
A. context
B. compound attack object
C. attack signature
D. protocol anomaly
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-541   JN0-541   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541 examen

NO.19 Exhibit:
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, which SYN
protector mode is the IDP using?
A. passive
B. handshake
C. relay
D. protective
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-541   JN0-541 examen   JN0-541

NO.20 Which rule base would detect netcat?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: C

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