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Code d'Examen: 190-951
Nom d'Examen: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Cade is building an XPage for the Sales application. What are the options from which he can select
when defining a data source from the data palette?
A.@DbLookup and @DbColumn
B.Domino view and Domino document
C.Data connections and DB2 access views
D.Data connections, DB2 access views, and file resources
Answer: B

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NO.2 Abbas has imported the screen.css stylesheet into his application. He has discovered that he needs to
edit the properties of some of the classes in the CSS. What steps can he follow to make the needed
changes and save the CSS changes within the application?
A.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Double-click
screen.css to use the built-in CSS editor.
B.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets. Click
screen.css and in the Outline view select a class to use the built-in CSS editor.
C.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Design tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS class to
edit its properties.
D.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Web Properties tab of the Properties view, double-click a CSS
class to edit its properties.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Barb is the lead developer for the Sales application and the Travel application. Each application
consists of multiple databases. Within the application navigator, Barb would like to be able to list the
databases of the Sales application together, and then, separate from the Sales application, to list the
databases of the Travel application together. How can she do this?
A.For each application, create a subfolder under the Data folder. Move each set of databases to the
appropriate subfolder. Drag each folder onto the application navigator.
B.Click the folders icon within the application navigator. Select the option to Create a new Working Set.
Name the Working Set "Sales" and select the databases that comprise the Sales application. Perform a
similar procedure for the Travel application.
C.From Domino Designer select Create > Working Set. Specify "Sales" for the name. From the
application properties of each database of the Sales application, select "Sales" from the Working Set
drop-down list. Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
D.Edit the application properties of each database that comprises the Sales application. On the Design
tab, specify "Sales" for the Working Set option. Repeat for each database of the Sales application.
Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Devin has been developing an application that includes an XPage. When he opened the application in
Designer this morning, he noticed a small "x" icon by the XPages listing in the Applications view. He had
closed several of the Eclipse views yesterday, and does not see any errors displayed in the remaining
views. How can Devin locate the problems in the source code?
A.Right-click the "x" icon from the Applications view and select Go To Error. The Problems view displays
with the cursor at the first error.
B.Display the Problems view by selecting Window > Show Eclipse Views > Problems. Right-click a
displayed error and select Go To. The Source view opens to the line with the error.
C.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors. Double-click
the name of the XPage and the Source view opens to the line with the error.
D.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors. Double-click
the name of the XPage. The Source tab opens with the cursor at the first error line.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Alegria has saved her rental XPage, but there's an error in the XML source code. She knows this
because the application navigator shows an icon of a red X next to the XPage. Where can she find details
about the error?
A.Editor
B.Events view
C.Problems view
D.Application navigator
Answer: C

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NO.6 Jack needs to display the release version of the Sales application on the top of each XPage of the site.
He has created a computed field at the top of the 'home' XPage, and is using this field to set the release
version. Jack also needs to create a computed field that is placed at the top of each linked Xpage.
What code should he provide for Computed Field of each linked page to display the release version?
A.environment("relVersion");
B.applicationScope("relVersion");
C.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += environment.get("relVersion");strVersion
D.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += applicationScope.get("relVersion");strVersion
Answer: D

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NO.7 Kaitlyn has been asked to track which browser versions people are using to access the Customers
XPage. She wants to add code that writes the browser version to the server log whenever a user opens
the XPage.
What server-side code can Kaitlyn add to do this task?
A.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
var req = facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.getHeader("User-Agent"));
B.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
var req = facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.get(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
C.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
D.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader("User-Agent"));
Answer: A

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NO.8 Brett wants to add a view to his XPage, configured so that it displays two rows for each entry in the view.
What technique can he use to accomplish this task?
A.Add a View control to the XPage and configure the view's NumberOfRows property to '2'.
B.Add a View control to the XPage and change the NumberOfRows property on the All Properties tab to
'2'.
C.Enable the Application property Use Java Views on Web and configure the view's NumberOfRows
property to '2'.
D.Add a Repeat control to the XPage and place the appropriate fields within the Repeat control in a two
row table.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Neil has built an XPage and needs to have a field value to be calculated when the user selects
something from a Combo box control. How can he do this task?
A.Add server-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script Library to
execute the @SetField function.
B.Add client-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script Library to
execute the @SetField function.
C.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Modify Field type and define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
D.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Update Field type and define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Pablo has created an XPage to use for browsing and editing customer data. He would like to add a
button which asks users if they are sure that they want to update the customer data. The button saves the
changes if users indicate that they are sure.
How can Pablo create this button?
A.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, select
Save as the button type, and enable the Confirm option.
B.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, select
Save as the button type. A confirmation prompt is included by default.
C.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a server-side simple action. Select Confirm
Action for the action.
D.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a client-side simple action. Select Confirm
Action for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Farah has added the main.css stylesheet to her XPage. She wants to associate the helpText class
from main.css with the lblHelp Label control on the page. How can Farah do this task?
A.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas and enter this line:
B.Right-click lblHelp from the XPage. On the HTML tab of the Properties window, enter helpText for the
Class option.
C.Select the lblHelp control on the Xpage. From the Style tab of the Properties window, enter helpText for
the Class option.
D.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas. Locate the line. Below this line, add:
Answer: C

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NO.12 Ida has developed the needed functionality in the Customers XPage of her application. The Web
design team has provided her with the internal.css stylesheet. After Ida imports the stylesheet to her
application, how can she add the stylesheet to the XPage?
A.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. On the Style tab of the Properties view, click Add style sheet to
page and select internal.css.
B.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. Right-click in an open area of the XPage and open the Properties
window. Select internal.css for the Style Sheet option.
C.From the Applications view, select Resources > Style Sheets > internal.css. From the Wiring tab of the
Properties view, click Add and select XPage > Customers.
D.From the Applications view, double-click to open the internal.css stylesheet. From the Associations tab
of the Properties view, click Add association and select XPage > Customers.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The DiscussionTopics XPage includes a button to take users to the Feedback XPage. Ted has
created the Feedback XPage. He now wants to add a Save and close button that saves the user's input,
and take the user back to the DiscussionTopics XPage. What is one way he can do this task?
A.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();
B.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();context.getUrl("..");
C.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Document. Specify DiscussionTopics as the argument.
D.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Data Sources. Specify DiscussionTopics as the argument.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Eamonn has developed and supported several Domino Web applications over the years. He has been
told that one of the benefits of XPages is that XPages are AJAX-enabled. What is a benefit that Eamonn
might expect to see if he incorporates AJAX-enabled XPages in his applications?
A.Faster development using Shared Widgets resources
B.Faster response time due to partial page refreshes
C.Faster response time because JavaScript is now all server-side
D.Faster development because XML is now automatically converted to JSON
Answer: B

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NO.15 Martha has a Submit button on her Timesheet XPage. When clicked, the button uses the Save
Document simple action to save the data to the underlying document. What parameters does Martha
have to provide to the Save Document simple action?
A.none
B.pageName, mergeConflicts
C.forceSave, createResponse
D.documentName, saveImmediate
Answer: A

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NO.16 Viktor has been asked to begin modifying the corporate Domino Web sites to adhere to XHTML
standards. He has enabled Enable enhanced HTML generation in the application properties. When
testing a couple of the page elements in the Web browser and viewing the source, Viktor notices that tags
like
and are still not correctly closed, that is.,
. What could be the problem?
A.This setting only applies to generated HTML, like passthrough HTML on a form.
B.The Web closes tags that have content. Tags that do not have content are ignored.
C.Each page element needs to be opened and saved to incorporate this new application property setting.
D.The Web server generates valid XML, but there are exceptions. One of the exceptions is passthrough
HTML.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Odette is designing the index XPage that is used for navigation for her Domino application. For what
purpose might Odette use the Outline view in Domino Designer in Eclipse while working with the index
XPage?
A.To drag elements to rearrange sections and change the sequence of elements on the XPage.
B.To drag controls from the controls palette onto a hierarchical representation of the XML source code,
typically during the initial design of the XPage.
C.Aside from the expand and collapse icons, nothing in an Outline view is clickable. Nonetheless, the
Outline view provides an extremely useful means to browse the XML elements of an XPage.
D.The Outline view provides a hierarchical representation of the XML source code in XPages. The
developer can quickly update various settings from within the Outline view using right-click menu options
for each element.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Qiang needs to add a button to the Contact XPage. When clicked, this button should delete the
currently-open document from the application. What is one way that Qiang can add this button?
A.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the Operations tab, select Current document and Delete.
B.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. In the Options area of the properties, select Delete for the Action, and select Domino
Document for the Target.
C.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a server-side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
D.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a client-side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Nadine has discovered that XPages dynamically generates names of UI elements. She therefore
cannot know ahead of time what an element's name is when it is passed to the nWeb browser. What
function can Nadine use in her server-side JavaScript to fetch the generated element ID at runtime?
A.getClientId
B.getXpageElementId
C.toString(elementId())
D.toString(getElementId())
Answer: A

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NO.20 Lainey has recently upgraded to Notes Domino 8.5. She is now exploring the design of her
applications to see what new features might be available. What is the purpose of the controls palette that
Lainey sees?
A.The controls palette contains controls, such as Edit Box, File Upload, and Table that the developer can
drag onto the XPage canvas.
B.The controls palette is another way to access the same items that are available from the Create menu
for forms, views, XPages and other design elements.
C.The controls palette contains items like Edit Box, Button, and Label that the developer can drag onto
XPages and forms. The controls palette is not available for views and pages.
D.The controls palette contains UI and other controls (such as Button, Link, and Image) that allow the
developer to drag controls onto XPage or page elements. The controls palette is not available for other
elements.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 190-980
Nom d'Examen: Lotus (Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Operating Funda)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A.There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B.Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who share a common
organizational certifier.
C.Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory. Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D.Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.2 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document placed?
A.NAMES.NSF
B.CERTLOG.NSF
C.CATALOG.NSF
D.DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are building Domino Domain Monitoring probes in Domino 8.5 and wish to create a standard
Possible Solution for all of them. Which of the following document types allow this capability?
A.Modular
B.Embedded
C.Component
D.Corrective
Answer: A

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NO.4 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS enabled. While in the
document, Terry replaces the attachment with a new version. Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the new
attachment
D.The server sends the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which of the following databases may you view all the database ACLs on a server by user name,
access level, or by database?
A.Log
B.Names
C.Catalog
D.Certlog
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have the ability to set different levels of administration access to users. Which of the following
represents the hierarchy order for privileges from greatest to least access?
A.Server administrator > View Console administrator > Administrator > User administrator
B.Full access administrator > Administrator > Full console administrator > System administrator
C.Full Console administrator > System Administrator > Full Access administrator > Administrator
D.Full server access administrator > Console rights administrator > User administrator > View access
only administrator
Answer: B

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NO.7 John is setting up a single domain with a single organization. As a result, all Domino server IDs must
be created using which one of the following?
A.The same cross-certificate
B.The same administrator certificate
C.The same country (C) certificate or a child of that country (C) certificate
D.The same organizational (O) certificate or a child of that organizational (O) certificate
Answer: D

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NO.8 In what order would Richard build a naming convention for his organization where user names would
have the following format:
Chris Maxwell/Amsterdam/Acme
AJ Mathis/Sydney/Acme
A.Create a Common Name (CN) Certifier named Acme and then create Organizational (O) Certifiers
named Amsterdam and Sydney
B.Create an Organizational (O) Certifier named Acme and then create Organizational Unit (OU) certifiers
named Amsterdam and Sydney
C.Create a Organizational (O) Certifier named Amsterdam, an Organizational (O) Certifier named Sydney
and an Organizational Unit (OU) certifier named Acme
D.Create two Organizational (O) Certifiers named Acme and use one to create an Organizational Unit
(OU) Certifier named Amsterdam and the other O Certifier to create an OU Certifier named Sydney
Answer: B

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NO.9 Ben attempts to send Jerry a Notes mail message. Both users are on the same mail server. Which of
the following paths will the message take?
A.The Router will receive the message from Ben and deliver it immediately to Jerry's mailfile via SMTP
B.The Router will receive the message from Ben and deliver it immediately to Jerry's mailfile via NRPC
C.The server will receive the message from Ben and send it to the mail hub for distribution back to the
mail server and then delivery to Jerry's mailfile
D.The SMTP task will receive the message from Ben and immediately send it to Jerry after following the
SMTP to Notes path defined in the configuration settings documents for the mail server
Answer: B

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NO.10 In addition to Notes databases, which of the following files on a Domino server should be backed up in
order to ensure that new users can be created in case of loss of the server?
A.Cache.dsk
B.Certifier ID files
C.The user's desktop.dsk file.
D.The server's bookmark.nsf file.
Answer: B

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NO.11 While you used the Domino Administrator client, what two subtabs may be found under the Messaging
tab?
A.Router and Mailboxes
B.Mail and Tracking Center
C.Mail Users and SMTP Configuration
D.Mail Statistics and Mail Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.12 The server Web1/XYZ defaults to Server document settings to obtain configuration information for
Internet protocols when which of the following features is not enabled?
A.Internet Site documents
B.Global Domain documents
C.Single Sign-on documents
D.Web Configuration documents
Answer: A

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NO.13 Why did Tom designate Server1/Boise/Acme as the Administration Server for the Domino Directory?
A.To make sure that all new users were registered on Server1/Boise/Acme.
B.To prevent users from making changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
C.To force administrators to make all changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
D.To ensure that the Administration Process would process all Domino Directory changes on
Server1/Boise/Acme.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which one of the following group types is used to prevent access to Domino servers?
A.Mail only
B.Servers only
C.Deny list only
D.Access Control List only
Answer: C

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NO.15 Where does the Domino Server Setup program store the certifier ID file by default?
A.In the Domino Name and Address Book
B.In any network drive location that you specify during installation
C.In the directory you specify as the Domino data directory during installation
D.On the Domino Administrator's local machine in My Documents\Lotus\Certifiers directory
Answer: C

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NO.16 OCSP on the Domino server is enabled through which of the following?
A.Server document
B.Security policy
C.Server configuration document
D.Certificate authority database
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your Organizational certifier is named Acme. Each city in your company has an Organizational Unit
certifier from the Acme certifier that references the city. Susan wants to create an Organizational Unit
certifier below the city Organizational Unit certifier. Which one of the following must she have to
accomplish this?
A.Reader access to the domain's directory
B.A copy of the Acme Organizational certifier
C.A copy of the city's Organizational Unit certifier
D.Copies of both the Acme Organizational certifier and the location's Organizational Unit certifier
Answer: C

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NO.18 Jose is creating a new password for himself. Which one of the following will "password quality
checking" indicate is the least secure password?
A.Mixed case passphrases
B.All uppercase passwords
C.Passphrases containing numbers and punctuation
D.Words found in Notes dictionaries during spell check
Answer: D

Lotus   certification 190-980   190-980   190-980   190-980   190-980

NO.19 Susan has created a list of IP Addresses for the web server that are allowed access and a list of IP
Addresses that are denied access. Both are placed in the appropriate fields. Which field takes
precedence BY DEFAULT when the same IP address is found in both lists?
A.The Allow Access field
B.The Deny Access field
C.The Substitution Access field
D.An error will be presented stating an address may not be in both fields
Answer: A

Lotus examen   190-980   190-980   190-980

NO.20 Jon registered a new user. Which one of the following authentication elements is NOT found in that
user's ID file?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificates
D.HTTP password
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JN0-341
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (ER.Associate(JNCIA-ER))
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which command copies the factory-default files to your backup media?
A.request system snapshot rescue
B.request system snapshot factory
C.request system snapshot default
D.request system snapshot as-primary
Correct:B

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.2 Which three initial configuration methods are supported on J-series routers? (Choose three.)
A.CLI
B.J-Web
C.JUNOScope
D.autoinstallation
E.PCMCIA flash card
Correct:A B D

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.3 How many committed configuration files are stored on the Juniper Networks enterprise router?
A.4
B.15
C.48
D.50
Correct:D

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, the protect-re filter is applied as an input filter on the
lo0.0 interface and all possible services are enabled under [edit system services]. Which two
methods can you use to access the router? (Choose two.)
A.FTP
B.SSH
C.Telnet
D.J-Web
Correct:B D

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.5 Which CLI command will ping destination 10.0.29.1 ten times and display the incoming interface
of the received packet?
A.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 detail
B.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 detail
C.ping count 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
D.ping number 10 10.0.29.1 extensive
Correct:A

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.6 What is shown by the command show interfaces extensive fe-0/0/0 but not shown by the
command show interface detail fe-0/0/0?
A.input error counter
B.interface MTU size
C.input packets counter
D.the IP address on logical interface fe-0/0/0.0
Correct:A

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.7 What are two methods of accessing a Juniper enterprise router? (Choose two)
A.RSH
B.HTTPS
C.console
D.J-Config
Correct:B C

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.8 What is the default route preference for static routes?
A.0
B.5
C.10
D.170
Correct:B

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.9 What are two functions of the Intel IXP processors? (Choose two.)
A.keepalives
B.route-lookup
C.CRC validation
D.Layer 2 decapsulation
Correct:A C

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.10 In configuration mode you see the following prompt: [edit interfaces fe-1/1/1] user@router#
Which command will take you to operational mode?
A.end
B.exit
C.quit
D.exit configuration-mode
Correct:D

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.11 Which two field-replaceable units (FRUs) are hot-swappable? (Choose two.)
A.Routing Engine on M10i
B.Physical Interface Card on M7i
C.fan tray on J-series routers
D.Physical Interface Modules on J6300 router
Correct:A B

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.12 Which type of IGP should you use to achieve scalability in a large enterprise network?
A.link-state protocol
B.path-vector protocol
C.Bellman-Ford protocol
D.distance-vector protocol
Correct:A

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.13 Which two statements regarding system logging on a Juniper enterprise router are correct?
(Choose two.)
A.The system log has a proprietary format.
B.System logs must be sent to a remote device.
C.New system logs can be created and archived.
D.Most software processes create their own logs.
Correct:C D

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.14 Which J-Web menu displays the users currently logged into the CLI?
A.Monitor > Users
B.Manage > Users
C.Monitor > System
D.Manage > System
Correct:C

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.15 Which multicast address does RIPv2 use for route updates by default?
A.224.0.0.2
B.224.0.0.5
C.224.0.0.9
D.255.255.255.255
Correct:C

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.16 What does the number one (1) represent for interface fe-0/0/1?
A.port number
B.PCI slot number
C.channel number
D.virtual PIC number
Correct:A

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.17 Which CLI command displays all OSPF LSAs received by the local router?
A.show ospf neighbor
B.show ospf database
C.show ospf interface
D.show ospf adjacency
Correct:B

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.18 What is one configuration method for loading a factory default configuration onto a J-series
router?
A.load override reset
B.load factory-default
C.rollback factory-default
D.request system factory-default
Correct:B

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.19 Which three options can be used with the load CLI command? (Choose three.)
A.merge
B.replace
C.partial
D.complete
E.override
Correct:A B E

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

NO.20 The J-Web application can install the JUNOS software from which two locations? (Choose two.)
A.SDX
B.local PC
C.BSD shell
D.remote host
Correct:B D

Juniper   JN0-341   JN0-341

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Code d'Examen: JN0-330
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (JN0-330-Enhanced Services, Specialist(JNCIS-ES))
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 A route-based VPN is required for which scenario?
A. when the remote VPN peer is behind a NAT device
B. when multiple networks need to be reached across the tunnel
C. when the remote VPN peer is a dialup or remote access client
D. when a dynamic routing protocol such as OSPF is required across the VPN
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
host_a is in subnet_a and host_b is in subnet_b.
Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, which statement is true about traffic from host_a to host_b?
A. DNS traffic is denied.
B. Telnet traffic is denied.
C. SMTP traffic is denied.
D. Ping traffic is permitted.
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. Three physical interfaces are redundant.
B. You must define an additional Redundancy Group.
C. node 0 will immediately become primary in the cluster.
D. You must issue an operational command and reboot the system for the above configuration to take
effect.
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-330   certification JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.4 Using a policy with the policy-rematch flag enabled, what happens to the existing and new sessions
when you change the policy action from permit to deny?
A. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions are dropped.
B. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions, not being allowed to carry
any traffic, simply timeout.
C. The new sessions matching the policy might be allowed through if they match another policy. The
existing sessions are dropped.
D. The new sessions matching the policy are denied. The existing sessions continue until they are
completed or their timeout is reached.
Answer:A

certification Juniper   certification JN0-330   JN0-330   certification JN0-330   JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.5 In JUNOS software with enhanced services, which three packet elements are inspected to determine
if a session
already exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer:ACE

Juniper   JN0-330   JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, client PC 192.168.10.10 cannot ping 1.1.1.2.
Which is a potential cause for this problem?
A. The untrust zone does not have a management policy configured.
B. The trust zone does not have ping enabled as host-inbound-traffic service.
C. The security policy from the trust zone to the untrust zone does not permit ping.
D. No security policy exists for the ICMP reply packet from the untrust zone to the trust zone.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-330   certification JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.7 You want to enable SSH and Telnet access to the router's CLI. Under which configuration hierarchy
would you enable these protocols?
A. [edit system cli]
B. [edit security cli]
C. [edit system services]
D. [edit security services]
Answer: C

certification Juniper   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330

NO.8 Interface ge-0/0/2.0 of your router is attached to the Internet and is configured with an IP address and
network mask
of 71.33.252.17/24. A host with IP address 10.20.20.1 is running an HTTP service on TCP port 8080. This
host isattached to the ge-0/0/0.0 interface of your router. You must use interface-based static NAT to
make the HTTP service on the host reachable from the Internet.
On which IP address and TCP port can Internet hosts reach the HTTP service?
A. IP address 10.10.10.1 and TCP port 8080
B. IP address 71.33.252.17 and TCP port 80
C. IP address 71.33.251.19 and TCP port 80
D. IP address 71.33.252.19 and TCP port 8080
Answer: D

Juniper   certification JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

NO.9 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections. How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

certification Juniper   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

NO.10 Which parameters must you select when configuring operating system probes SCREEN options?
A. syn-fin, syn-flood, and tcp-no-frag
B. syn-fin, port-scan, and tcp-no-flag
C. syn-fin, fin-no-ack, and tcp-no-frag
D. syn-fin, syn-ack-ack-proxy, and tcp-no-frag
Answer: C

certification Juniper   JN0-330   certification JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.11 You are not able to telnet to the interface IP of your JUNOS software with enhanced services device
from a PC on the same subnet. What is causing the problem?
A. Telnet is not being permitted by self policy.
B. Telnet is not being permitted by security policy.
C. Telnet is not allowed because it is not considered secure.
D. Telnet is not enabled as a host-inbound service on the zone.
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.12 A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. network address translation
Answer: B

Juniper   certification JN0-330   JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the priority for Router B in VRRP group 100?
A. 1
B. 100
C. 110
D. 255
Answer: B

Juniper examen   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330

NO.14 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@hostl# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-330   JN0-330   certification JN0-330   JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.15 On which three traffic types does firewall pass-through authentication work? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: BCD

Juniper   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330

NO.16 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPSec VPN secured by AH?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer:ACE

certification Juniper   JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the purpose of this OSPF configuration?
A. The router sends the file debugOSPF (containing hellos sent and LSA updates) to the syslog server.
B. The router traces both OSPF hellos sent and LSA updates, and stores the results in the debugOSPF
file.
C. The router traces both OSPF hellos sent and LSA updates, and sends the results to the syslog process
with the debugOSPF facility.
D. The router traces all OSPF operations, stores the results in the debugOSPF file, and marks both hellos
sent and LSAupdates in the file with a special flag.
Answer: B

Juniper examen   certification JN0-330   certification JN0-330   JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.18 Which two are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Routers choose a best path for a destination based on the SPF algorithm.
B. All routers in a given area or level build a consistent database describing the network's topology.
C. Routers choose the best path for a destination based on the interface on which they received the link
stateadvertisement with the lowest cost.
D. All routers in a given area or level forward link state advertisements between interfaces in the same
area or level,
adding their metric to the link state advertisement's cost information when they forward it.
Answer:AB

certification Juniper   JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.19 Which two are components of the JUNOS software's routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. route-map
B. prefix-list
C. distribute-list
D. policy-statement
Answer: BD

Juniper examen   JN0-330   JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.20 Which two statements regarding asymmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: BC

Juniper   JN0-330   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330 examen

NO.21 Which two are components of the enhanced services software architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Linux kernel
B. routing protocol daemon
C. session-based forwarding module
D. separate routing and security planes
Answer: BC

certification Juniper   JN0-330   JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

NO.22 Which three parameters are configured in the IKE policy? (Choose three.)
A. mode
B. preshared key
C. external interface
D. security proposals
E. dead peer detection settings
Answer: ABD

Juniper examen   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330

NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of source NAT is configured in the exhibit?
A. static source pool
B. interface source pool
C. source pool with PAT
D. souce pool without PAT
Answer:A

Juniper   certification JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.24 In a JSRP cluster with two J6350 routers, the interface ge-7/0/0 belongs to which device?
A. This interface is a system-created interface.
B. This interface belongs to NODE0 of the cluster.
C. This interface belongs to NODE1 of the cluster.
D. This interface will not exist because J6350 routers have only six slots.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-330   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330

NO.25 Which statement is true about interface-based static NAT?
A. It also supports PAT.
B. It requires you to configure address entries in the junos-nat zone.
C. It requires you to configure address entries in the junos-global zone.
D. The IP addresses being translated must be in the same subnet as the incoming interface.
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.26 Users can define policy to control traffic flow between which two components? (Choose two.)
A. from a zone to the router itself
B. from a zone to the same zone
C. from a zone to a different zone
D. from one interface to another interface
Answer: BC

certification Juniper   JN0-330 examen   certification JN0-330   JN0-330   certification JN0-330

NO.27 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what will happen to the traffic matching the security
policy?
A. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel only on Tuesdays.
B. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel daily, with the exception of Mondays.
C. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel all day on Mondays, Wednesdays between
7:00 am and 6:00 pm, and Thursdays between 7:00 am and 6:00 pm.
D. The traffic is permitted through the myTunnel IPSec tunnel all day on Mondays, Wednesdays between
6:01 pm and 6:59 am, and Thursdays between 6:01 pm and 6:59 am.
Answer: C

Juniper examen   certification JN0-330   JN0-330

NO.28 You want to create a policy allowing traffic from any host in the Trust zone to hostb.example.com
(172.19.1.1) in the
Untrust zone. How do you do create this policy?
A. Specify the IP address (172.19.1.1/32) as the destination address in the policy.
B. Specify the DNS entry (hostb.example.com.) as the destination address in the policy.
C. Create an address book entry in the Trust zone for the 172.19.1.1/32 prefix and reference this entry in
the policy.
D. Create an address book entry in the Untrust zone for the 172.19.1.1/32 prefix and reference this entry
in the policy.
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330 examen   JN0-330

NO.29 Which command allows you to view the router's current priority for VRRP group 100 on interface
ge-0/0/1.0?
A. show vrrp
B. show vrrp group 100
C. show interfaces ge-0/0/1.0 vrrp group 100
D. show interfaces vrrp ge-0/0/1.0 group 100
Answer:A

certification Juniper   certification JN0-330   JN0-330 examen

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur Juniper JN0-632

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Code d'Examen: JN0-632
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Professional, Security (JNCIP-SEC))
Questions et réponses: 169 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPsec VPN secured by AH.?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer: ACE

Juniper examen   JN0-632   JN0-632

NO.2 Which security or functional zone name has special significance to the Junos OS?
A. self
B. trust
C. untrust
D. junos-global
Answer: D

Juniper examen   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen   JN0-632

NO.3 Regarding content filtering, what are two pattern lists that can be configured in the Junos OS? (Choose
two.)
A. protocol list
B. MIME
C. block list
D. extension
Answer: BD

Juniper   JN0-632 examen   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen

NO.4 Which two statements are true about hierarchical architecture? (Choose two.)
A. You can assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
B. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
C. You can assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
D. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
Answer: BD

Juniper examen   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen

NO.5 Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: BCE

Juniper examen   JN0-632   certification JN0-632

NO.6 Which command do you use to display the status of an antivirus database update?
A. show security utm anti-virus status
B. show security anti-virus database status
C. show security utm anti-virus database
D. show security utm anti-virus update
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements in a source NAT configuration are true regarding addresses, rule-sets, or rules
that overlap? (Choose two.)
A. Addresses used for NAT pools should never overlap.
B. If more than one rule-set matches traffic, the rule-set with the most specific context takes precedence.
C. If traffic matches two rules within the same rule-set, both rules listed in the configuration are applied.
D. Dynamic source NAT rules take precedence over static source NAT rules.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which UTM feature requires a license to function?
A. integrated Web filtering
B. local Web filtering
C. redirect Web filtering
D. content filtering
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632   JN0-632

NO.9 Which two statements regarding symmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: AD

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen   certification JN0-632

NO.10 You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which zone is system-defined?
A. security
B. functional
C. junos-global
D. management
Answer: C

Juniper examen   JN0-632   certification JN0-632

NO.12 Which two UTM features require a license to be activated? (Choose two.)
A. antispam
B. antivirus (full AV)
C. content filtering
D. Web-filtering redirect
Answer: AB

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632   JN0-632

NO.13 Which configuration keyword ensures that all in-progress sessions are re-evaluated upon committing a
security policy change?
A. policy-rematch
B. policy-evaluate
C. rematch-policy
D. evaluate-policy
Answer: A

Juniper examen   JN0-632   certification JN0-632   JN0-632

NO.14 Which two statements regarding external authentication servers for firewall user authentication are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Up to three external authentication server types can be used simultaneously.
B. Only one external authentication server type can be used simultaneously.
C. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server is unreachable, authentication is bypassed.
D. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server rejects the authentication request, authentication is rejected
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which statement describes an ALG?
A. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to deny
the traffic.
B. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to permit the traffic to pass.
C. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to deny the traffic.
D. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to permit
the traffic to pass.
Answer:

NO.16 Which statement contains the correct parameters for a route-based IPsec VPN?
A. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
B. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
C. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
D. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
Answer: D

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NO.17 A network administrator has configured source NAT, translating to an address that is on a locally
connected subnet. The administrator sees the translation working, but traffic does not appear to come
back.What is causing the problem?
A. The host needs to open the telnet port.
B. The host needs a route for the translated address.
C. The administrator must use a proxy-arp policy for the translated address.
D. The administrator must use a security policy, which will allow communication between the zones.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen   JN0-632

NO.18 Which type of Web filtering by default builds a cache of server actions associated with each URL it has
checked?
A. Websense Redirect Web filtering
B. integrated Web filtering
C. local Web filtering
D. enhanced Web filtering
Answer: B

Juniper   certification JN0-632   JN0-632 examen

NO.19 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood. Which
configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
}
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
}
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632 examen   JN0-632 examen   certification JN0-632

NO.20 A user wants to establish an HTTP session to a server behind an SRX device but is being pointed to
Web page on the SRX device for additional authentication.Which type of user authentication is
configured?
A. pass-through with Web redirect
B. WebAuth with HTTP redirect
C. WebAuth
D. pass-through
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JN0-533
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

Juniper   JN0-533   certification JN0-533

NO.3 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

Juniper   certification JN0-533   JN0-533

NO.4 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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NO.7 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-533   JN0-533

NO.8 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: 630-005
Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 1: Purchasing Process)
Questions et réponses: 209 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is likely to obligate XXXX.com to a fiduciary responsibility?
A. Power.
B. Negotiation.
C. Commitment.
D. Functional authority.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which member of a buying organization is LEAST likely to be a member of a supplier analysis team?
A. The controller.
B. The design engineer.
C. The production engineer.
D. The quality assurance manager.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.3 Which of the following conditions is MOST likely to create a buyers' market?
A. Threat of strikes.
B. Political instability.
C. Favorable sales forecasts.
D. Adequate supply of materials.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the WEAKEST method of expediting in a situation where the need for
delivery is critical?
A. A personal letter.
B. A fax or e-mail message.
C. Contacts with the carrier.
D. A plant visit by the buyer or expediter.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.5 Which two of the following statements regarding the concept of order consignment are TRUE?
(Choose two.)
A. The supplier normally determines minimum and maximum stocking levels.
B. Supplier invoices may be eliminated by using disbursement reports on items taken from consignment
inventory.
C. The buyer pays only for goods removed from consignment, regardless of the length of time goods
remain available for use.
D. The supplier is responsible for identifying shipped goods as consignment goods and must keep them
separate from nonconsignment goods in the buyer's inventory.
Answer: B, C

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.6 Which of the following statements regarding progress payments is FALSE?
A. They may be tied to time periods.
B. They may be modified if a dispute develops during the course of a contract.
C. They should approximate the costs incurred by the supplier, including a portion of the profits.
D. They preclude the right to cancel a contract.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following costs would NOT be reduced by efficient expediting?
A. Lost discounts.
B. Excess inventory.
C. Production stoppage.
D. Premium transportation.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following would be used to resolve buyer/seller disputes related to global shipping and
packaging?
A. World Trade Organization (WTO)
B. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
C. North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
D. Convention on Contracts for the Sale of Goods (CISG)
Answer: D

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.9 In which of the following is bid prices adjusted to reflect differences in supplier performance?
A. Benchmarking.
B. The Cost-ratio method.
C. The Categorical method.
D. The Weighted-point method.
Answer: B

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NO.10 With regard to suppliers who are producers of single product, which of the following are FALSE?
A. Their prices tend to be lower.
B. Their quality tends to be higher.
C. Their delivery tends to be faster.
D. They tend to be more stable financially.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate when sourcing a part presently made in-house?
A. Soliciting manufacturing's approval to ensure future cooperation.
B. Developing a good understanding of present true internal costs.
C. Obtaining accurate specifications for the item to be purchased.
D. Developing a list of potential sources from which to solicit.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.12 Which of the following is required in open-end orders?
A. Purchase of a given amount of material over the term of the contract.
B. Delivery at fixed prices during a defined period.
C. Delivery of material on specific due dates.
D. No obligation on the part of the seller.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You work as the senior vice president of corporate procurement for XXXX.com.
You have just come out of a meeting of the company's top executives. At the meeting you were informed
about the pending merger of XXXX.com with a multibillion-dollar European conglomerate that is a major
player in the IT certification business. You have been asked to participate in the supply strategy planning
team, which will prepare a plan after the merger is complete. Which of the following will provide a supply
strategy that will help your team to prepare a plan?
A. Supply segmentation analysis.
B. Supply-base rationalization.
C. Early supplier involvement.
D. Activity-based costing.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.14 Which two of the following statements regarding the concept of order consignment are FALSE?
(Choose two.)
A. The supplier normally determines minimum and maximum stocking levels.
B. Supplier invoices may be eliminated by using disbursement reports on items taken from consignment
inventory.
C. The buyer pays only for goods removed from consignment, regardless of the length of time goods
remain available for use.
D. The supplier is responsible for identifying shipped goods as consignment goods and must keep them
separate from nonconsignment goods in the buyer's inventory.
Answer: A, D

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.15 Which of the following is the MOST meaningful indicator of a company's trend of profitability?
A. The change in after-tax return on average invested capital.
B. The change in average profit margin on the product line.
C. The period-to-period change in cost of goods sold.
D. The earnings per share of common stock.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.16 Which of the following specifications is MOST appropriate for the purchasing of subsystems and
subassemblies?
A. Performance.
B. ANSI standards.
C. Chemical/physical.
D. Material and method-of-manufacture.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.17 Which of the following BEST describes a situation in which a client accepts the services of an
accountant without an agreement concerning payment?
A. An implied in fact contract.
B. An implied in law contract.
C. An express contract.
D. No contract.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.18 Which of the following would NOT be considered costs due to improper delivery in a delivery
performance rating system?
A. Deliveries made ahead of schedule.
B. Deliveries made behind schedule.
C. Price variance performance.
D. Expediting costs.
Answer: C

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.19 Which of the following bonds are used to protect purchasers and their organizations?
A. Performance bonds.
B. Municipal bonds.
C. Corporate bonds.
D. Bearer bonds.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.20 Which of the following BEST describes the flaw of supplier evaluation plans?
A. Empirical studies have shown them to be invalid.
B. Their subjectivity makes sole reliance on them inadvisable.
C. They cannot be performed without the assistance of a computer.
D. Many suppliers in recent years have had vehement objections to their use.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.21 On which of the following do most state and local governments establish a supplier base?
A. Bidders lists.
B. Pre-bid conferences.
C. Interactions between purchasing and the supplier.
D. Interactions between the using department and the supplier.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.22 You work as a purchasing manager at XXXX.com. A top executive at XXXX.com is frequently
involved with several charities. He calls you and says he would like to seek donations from XXXX.com's
major suppliers. On what basis would you discourage this?
A. Information is confidential.
B. The executive's actions are illegal.
C. Reputation of the firm would suffer.
D. Suppliers are likely to cease doing business with the firm.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.23 You work as a buyer at XXXX.com. You are new to the industry, but is an experienced buyer. You
receive an invitation from a major supplier's salesperson to meet for lunch to discuss new products and
have a "get-to-know-you" visit. The salesperson suggests that the discussion not be tied to any present
XXXX.com company need. You view this lunch meeting as an opportunity for free training and insight into
the marketplace, as well as a demonstration of willingness to spend some personal time on training. You
have no intention of accepting a free lunch from the supplier, see no ethical constraints, and know of no
company policy on the matter.
The meeting, however, becomes known to the entire department, which starts discussions among the
staff about what your purpose is, whether it is related to company business, and why the meeting was not
conducted on company grounds with other more experienced staff. How would XXXX.com be BEST
served in this situation?
A. By restricting meetings with sales personnel to official business on company grounds.
B. By limiting new-buyer training to in-house training, association courses, and trade shows.
C. By having a clear company policy statement for meetings with sales personnel.
D. By reviewing all buyers' lunch plans daily.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.24 Which of the following requires the purchaser to assume high inspection costs?
A. Method-of-manufacture specifications.
B. Supplier grade specifications.
C. Brand name.
D. Trade name.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.25 Under which of the following situations is it MOST appropriate to use competitive bidding?
A. When it is difficult to estimate costs.
B. When price is the main consideration.
C. When specification changes are likely.
D. When tooling and set-up costs are major considerations.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.26 The operations and planning functions within XXXX.com do not provide purchasing with sufficient
time to obtain a needed product or service. Which of the following is LEAST likely to result from this
situation?
A. Premium transportation charges.
B. Production schedule changes.
C. Cash flow reductions.
D. Higher prices.
Answer: C

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.27 According to the Uniform Commercial Code, how long after the cause of action has accrued to either
the buyer or seller must any legal action be filed?
A. 12 months.
B. 18 months.
C. 2 years.
D. 3 years.
E. 4 years.
Answer: E

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.28 Which of the following would MOST likely be of assistance in post-award contract administration with
regard to service contracts?
A. An audit clause.
B. Force majeure.
C. A warranty.
D. Insurance.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.29 Suppose XXXX.com has a 5% profit margin, one dollar of savings in purchases will equal what
amount of additional sales for XXXX.com?
A. $ 5
B. $ 10
C. $ 15
D. $ 20
E. $ 25
Answer: D

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.30 Which of the following is the LEAST important in a supplier performance rating system?
A. Price history.
B. Product quality.
C. On-time delivery.
D. Financial stability.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.31 Which of the following responsibilities does the term "F.O.B. Shipping Point," added to a purchase
order designate? Choose all that apply.)
A. If the delivered shipment fails to reach the buyer, the supplier must reimburse the purchase price.
B. The supplier is required to deliver the shipment to a carrier.
C. The buyer takes title at the specified delivery point.
D. All transportation costs are paid by the buyer.
Answer: B, D

certification ISM   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.32 Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for obtaining competitive bids?
A. Preselection of suppliers.
B. Product homogeneity.
C. Organization policy.
D. Legal requirements.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.33 On which of the following needs is the use of benchmarking in supplier evaluations PRIMARILY
based?
A. Add value.
B. Reduce overhead.
C. Manage inventory.
D. Focus on work flow.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.34 Which of the following would NOT be included in the preparation of a request for quotation to solicit
competitive bids for construction?
A. Brand names of material to be used.
B. A list of pre-approved subcontractors.
C. The owner's budget estimate for the work.
D. The type and sample of contract to be used.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.35 XXXX.com needs to replace a major software program used in many areas of the rganization. The
existing software licenses will expire within the next year.
Extending these licenses is an option but not one that XXXX.com favors. Which of the following is the
BEST approach to take in this situation?
A. Research sources for the software, issue RFPs to them, analyze the proposals, narrow them down to
the top three, and negotiate the best deal.
B. Request engineering to propose three candidates, issue an RFP, have each supplier present its
proposal, and select the best source based on weighted guidelines.
C. Issue an RFI with input from user departments, review software and licenses from several suppliers,
issue an RFP, and evaluate the top three proposals based on weighted guidelines.
D. Identify which departments within the organization are satisfied with the current software, and use their
input to present a case to top management that the license should be extended.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.36 In which of the following situations may oral contracts NOT be acceptable according to the Uniform
Commercial Code?
A. For the purchase of goods costing less than $500.
B. When they are within the boundaries of a single state.
C. When partial payment or part performance has occurred.
D. Where parties have customarily done business on an oral basis.
Answer: B

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.37 In which of the following budgets would a machine that has a three-year useful life and is valued at
$5,500 belong?
A. MRO.
B. Capital.
C. Materials.
D. Operating.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.38 Which of the following represents trade discounts that are structured as a sequence of individual
discounts, such as 25, 10, and 5 percent?
A. Cash discounts.
B. Quantity discounts.
C. Seasonal discounts.
D. Functional discounts.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.39 Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
A. Only systems contracts require specific approval on every order.
B. Only procurement cards require specific approval on every order.
C. Both systems contracts and procurement cards requires specific approval on every order.
D. Neither systems contracts nor procurement cards requires specific approval on every order.
Answer: D

certification ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.40 Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a requisitioner to limit competition?
A. The requisitioner is seeking to fulfill requirements.
B. The requisitioner needs superior technical capabilities.
C. The requisitioner desires an exclusive catalogue number.
D. The requisitioner is seeking capital equipment replacement parts.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.41 Which of the following would be liable for any shipping damages if a product is shipped "F.O.B.
Destination, Freight Paid by Buyer"?
A. The seller.
B. The buyer.
C. The carrier.
D. Cannot be determined from above information.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.42 Which of the following is MORE relevant to single sourcing is based than cost issues?
A. Price strategies.
B. Quality strategies.
C. Delivery strategies.
D. Management strategies.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.43 Which of the following is the LEAST important on a purchase requisition?
A. An authorized signature.
B. The account to be charged.
C. The name of the freight carrier.
D. The date the materials are required.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.44 Which of the following is the LEAST useful in evaluating a supplier's financial position?
A. Market forecasts.
B. Current balance sheet.
C. Dun & Bradstreet reports.
D. Monthly income statements.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.45 What is the PRIMARY difference between expediting and follow-up?
A. The purchaser is usually not responsible for follow-up.
B. Expediting is more likely to be used for late shipments.
C. Follow-up is to assure delivery as promised, while expediting is used to accelerate shipment.
D. Back orders are usually handled by expediting, while follow-up is used when an entire delivery is late.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.46 XXXX.com has a 10% profit margin before taxes and spends 50% of its sales dollar on materials. What
percentage reduction in material costs for XXXX.com to achieve an increase of 5% in sales?
A. 1%
B. 2.5%
C. 5%
D. 7.5%
E. 10%
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.47 XXXX.com has annual revenues of $1.5 billion. Its profit is estimated to be $180 million in earnings
before interest and tax. What should XXXX.com do to achieve an increase in profitability of $60 million?
A. Increase its sales by $250 million.
B. Increase its sales by $500 million.
C. Reduce the cost of goods by $60 million.
D. Increase the cost of goods by $60 million.
E. Reduce the cost of goods by $120 million.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.48 Which of the following would NOT be included in purchase specifications?
A. Brand name or equal.
B. Drawings.
C. Finishes.
D. Cost.
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.49 Which of the following would NOT be included in routine contract administration?
A. Verification of compliance with contract terms and conditions.
B. Control of supplier finances in administering the contract.
C. Day-to-day administrative actions.
D. Work control.
Answer: B

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.50 Which of the following is the MAIN reason for establishing penalties for late supplier deliveries?
A. To ensure on-time delivery.
B. To cover the full cost of delays.
C. To invoke financial recompense.
D. To prevent manufacturing delays.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.51 Which of the following should the buyer consider FIRST when locating a potential source of supply?
A. Current suppliers.
B. Trade publications.
C. Chambers of commerce.
D. Trade shows and exhibits.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.52 Which of the following would NOT results in variances in a purchasing materials budget?
A. A reduction in purchasing's operating budget.
B. Master production schedule adjustments.
C. Updates in the bill of materials.
D. A change in sales forecasts.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.53 Which of the following does NOT have a bearing on a supplier performance rating system?
A. Quality
B. Service
C. Delivery
D. Past price
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.54 Which of the following can a buyer and a supplier may do under the terms of the Uniform
Commercial Code?
A. Make a binding contract without agreeing on an exact price until a later date only.
B. Make a binding contract without agreeing on an exact price until a later date and Revoke a contract at
any time if it does not contain an exact price.
C. Revoke a contract at any time if it does not contain an exact price only.
D. None of the above
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.55 Which of the following is MOST likely to be found in a file of contracts and agreements?
A. Required dies, jigs, fixtures, and patterns.
B. Contract writing instructions.
C. Expiration dates.
D. Selling terms.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.56 Which of the following would be of the LEAST assistance in locating global sources?
A. Chambers of Commerce.
B. Trading companies.
C. World Wide Web.
D. Embassies.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.57 Which of the following is the first consideration in developing an advanced purchasing plan?
A. The designation of the office to be responsible for payments.
B. A discussion of the level of competition expected.
C. The criteria to be used to evaluate the selection.
D. The development of a negotiation strategy.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.58 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The purpose of supplier certification is to improve quality and delivery reliability.
B. The purpose of supplier certification is to determine the pricing of products to be purchased.
C. The purpose of supplier certification is to provide a means for monitoring ongoing performance of a
supplier.
D. The purpose of supplier certification is to determine the suppliers with whom the organization should
enter into long-term relationships.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.59 Which of the following is generally NOT included in the cost analysis process?
A. Semi-variable costs.
B. Overhead costs.
C. Indirect costs.
D. Sunk costs.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.60 Which of the following is of LEAST consideration in the classification of needs when establishing
procurement plans for the purchase of products or services?
A. Specifications
B. Monetary value
C. Strategic or operational need
D. Repetitive or non-repetitive need
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.61 Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a driver of purchases of standard materials that are
common and in repetitive use?
A. Bill of material.
B. Production plan.
C. Commitment of funds.
D. Internal customer order.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.62 A supplier responding to a tender appears to have the capability in all respects to fully perform the
contract requirements, and the integrity and reliability to assure good faith performance. However, the
supplier indicates in its bid that its price is contingent upon receiving another contract which the supplier
has bid on as well.
How should this supplier be characterized?
A. As both a responsible and responsive bidder.
B. As a responsive but not a responsible bidder.
C. As a responsible but not a responsive bidder.
D. As neither a responsible nor a responsive bidder.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.63 Which of the following would NOT come under consideration when a buyer performs contract
compliance monitoring?
A. Whether the cost will be within the estimate.
B. Whether performance on schedule can be expected.
C. Whether the quality of the end products will be consistent with the specifications.
D. Whether the supplier's own progress monitoring system has been validated by an ISO validation team.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.64 Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Firms buying simple off-the-shelf supplies consider telephone instructions sufficient to complete a
purchase.
B. When receiving a telephone order suppliers prepare all paperwork, including invoices, packing slips,
and receiving documents.
C. In the past, telephone orders were rarely used in the procurement of MRO items.
D. Automated systems cannot be used to track and control telephone orders.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.65 Which of the following models BEST illustrates the relationship between output rates and the length
of time a company has been manufacturing a particular product?
A. Productivity ratio.
B. Learning curve.
C. Normal curve.
D. Pareto chart.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.66 Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for rejecting an invoice?
A. A mismatch between actual quantity received and quantity stated on the invoice.
B. Errors in unit price or total price.
C. A wrong address on the invoice.
D. Incorrect freight terms.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.67 Which of the following would NOT be included in a commodity record?
A. Supplier financial performance.
B. A list of sources.
C. Price history.
D. Quantities.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.68 Which of the following indicators in a supplier's financial report BEST reflects the supplier's ability to
meet its short-term cash requirement?
A. Times interest earned.
B. Return on assets.
C. Debt to sales.
D. Quick ratio.
Answer: D

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.69 Which of the following refers to the repayment of duties paid on materials that have been imported
and then re-exported in a different form?
A. Drawbacks.
B. Special dispensation.
C. Reverse "tax abatement".
D. Diversion and re-consignment.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.70 Which of the following should the buyer FIRST do when a using department requests that the buyer
purchase a specific brand-name product?
A. Attempt to negotiate a lower price with the supplier of the brand-name product.
B. Attempt to persuade the user to furnish performance specifications.
C. Search for competitive suppliers that furnish similar products.
D. Appeal the request to higher purchasing management.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.71 In which of the following countries outside of the United States do U.S. patentees enjoy protection
against infringement?
A. In countries that have full diplomatic relations with the United States.
B. In countries that are signatories to patent conventions only.
C. In European Union member counties only.
D. In GATT member countries only.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.72 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a long-term strategy to use multiple suppliers for
the same part?
A. Competition among suppliers.
B. Reduced lead time.
C. Improved quality.
D. Reduced price.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.73 Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
A. Supplier proprietary information is a compact between a manager and a purchaser.
B. Supplier proprietary information is subject to protection and is of value.
C. Supplier proprietary information is an ethic codified in law.
D. Supplier proprietary information gives market control.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.74 XXXX.com has decided to construct a new data center building. XXXX.com has also determined that
occupancy data center will be required in exactly one year. The purchasing department has determined
that the construction time will exceed 11 months. Against its better judgment, the purchasing department
issues a bid solicitation with responses due in 10 days, and which clearly states that no extensions will be
granted. Which of the following will LEAST likely be the resulting scenario encountered by purchasing?
A. Many bidders will refuse to bid the job.
B. The successful bidder will do poor quality work.
C. Bid tabulation will reveal most bids to be much higher than anticipated.
D. The bids will be of such a wide range that the job may likely need to be rebid.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.75 Which of the following should a buyer who is purchasing in the private sector normally do when using
an extensive list of approved suppliers to prepare an RFQ?
A. Issue the RFQ to all prequalified suppliers.
B. Obtain samples/models of products prior to issuing the RFQ.
C. Issue the RFQ to a reasonable cross section of prequalified suppliers.
D. Ask the requisitioner for a recommendation as to which suppliers to solicit.
Answer: C

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.76 XXXX.com has a contract with Waltons for the purchase of goods. The goods go missing in transit.
What determines who held title to the goods when they were lost?
A. The CISG term.
B. The F.O.B. term.
C. The freight payment terms.
D. The course of the transaction.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.77 XXXX.com has won a grant from the federal government to construct and operate a standard
weather observation station and equipment structure. On the basis of which of the following would the
construction contract for the weather observation station and equipment structure be awarded?
A. Letter of intent.
B. Directors' decision.
C. Competitive sealed bid.
D. Competitive sealed proposal.
E. Student design and build competition.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.78 Which of the following would generally NOT be accepted methods of payment for goods acquired
through international procurement?
A. C.O.D.
B. Letters of credit.
C. Payment after receipt and inspection.
D. Payment upon receipt of documented evidence of shipment.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.79 Which of the following terms BEST describes a situation in which a buyer directly or indirectly benefits
from his/her position or connections as an employee, or from the sale, purchase, or other activity of the
company?
A. Conflict of interest.
B. Mutual assent.
C. Subrogation.
D. Reciprocity.
Answer: A

ISM examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.80 Which of the following is the MOST accurate method for calculating and evaluating the economic
advantages or disadvantages of purchasing a piece of machinery?
A. The pay-back method.
B. The return-on-assets method.
C. The return-on-equity method.
D. The return-on-investment method.
Answer: D

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.81 Which of the following is the PRIMARY document authorizing a purchasing department to buy
specific goods or services?
A. Purchase order.
B. Bill of materials.
C. Production schedule.
D. Purchase requisition.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.82 What is the GREATEST advantage provided by a pre-bid conference?
A. Involvement of bidders reflects interest level.
B. Competing bidders quickly get to know one another.
C. Involvement of all parties leads to better relationships.
D. Information concerning the bid and specifications is clearer.
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.83 Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of service contract administration?
A. Aggressive management of the contract.
B. Selection of the right source.
C. A fair and reasonable price.
D. A sound statement of work.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.84 When can a purchasing department disclose supplier proprietary information to others within the
buying organization?
A. When establishing alliances with other suppliers.
B. When supplier samples have been provided.
C. On a need-to-know basis only.
D. Never.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.85 Which of the following contracts rewards performance above a predetermined level by adding a
percentage to price?
A. Futures
B. Blanket
C. Bilateral
D. Incentive
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.86 Which of the following is MOST likely to assure receipt of materials against the invoice from the
supplier?
A. The Receiving Department.
B. The Production Department.
C. The Purchasing Department.
D. The Accounts Payable Department.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.87 Which of the following are the MOST important results to measure each month using a supplier
performance rating system? (Choose two.)
A. Price.
B. Quality.
C. Delivery.
D. Customer service.
Answer: B, C

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.88 You work as the purchasing manager at XXXX.com. You discover that staff members of the
engineering department have been treated to expensive lunches by a supplier. Which of the following
actions should you take?
A. Discuss the situation with the manager of the engineering department.
B. Send a copy of the company purchasing ethics to each engineer.
C. Appeal to the company president to take corrective action.
D. Discuss the situation with the supplier.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.89 You work as a buyer at XXXX.com. You visit a manufacturer's plant and research division for a
general inspection and product review. You are required to sign in at the registration desk and must
acknowledge acceptance of the standard terms of visiting. You determine that the visit was very
encouraging discussions and return to XXXX.com with a sample of a new product. The new product is an
expensive item of complex design with innovative features.
Why would you need to take specific precautions to protect the sample while in XXXX.com's care?
A. The Truth-in-Lending Law requirements apply.
B. Damage to the sample may result in a charge for repair.
C. Evaluation of the sample might consume company resources.
D. The plant sign-in may have established non-disclosure requirements.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.90 Which piece of legislation is designed to prevent sellers from discriminating in price between buyers of
like grade and quality materials where the consequence of so doing tends to injure or destroy
competition?
A. The Clayton Act.
B. The False Claims Act.
C. The Davis-Bacon Act.
D. The Robinson-Patman Act.
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.91 Which of the following is the BEST approach for protecting information when attending a supplier
demonstration of a proprietary manufacturing process?
A. Using key card entry.
B. Requiring a signed non-disclosure agreement.
C. Requiring positive identification and registration.
D. A discussion of the handling of certified information.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.92 Which of the following is the LEAST likely to be included in a product file?
A. Price.
B. Specifications.
C. Supplier history.
D. Purchase history.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.93 What type of solicitation is represented by a request for bids using an approved products list?
A. Two-step bidding.
B. Alternate proposals.
C. Restricted competition.
D. Competitive proposals.
Answer: C

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.94 Which of the following is generally NOT a form of third party purchasing?
A. Consortiums.
B. Credit card purchases.
C. Master contracts/agreements.
D. Outsourced purchasing operations.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.95 You work as a buyer at XXXX.com. You have responsibility for the purchase of capital equipment.
You receive an emergency call from the plant manager, requesting the purchase of a special generator
that costs $100,000. The existing generator is old and causing problems, and the repair company can no
longer guarantee future repairs. Normal leadtime for delivery of the special generator is 20 weeks.
However, the plant manager has requested delivery of the new generator within 30 days. Which of the
following should you do FIRST?
A. Insist that the plant manager submit a properly approved and funded requisition for the new generator.
B. Determine the current cost of the new generator and additional costs related to short-time-interval
ordering, expediting, and premium transportation.
C. Contact the repair company to determine the extent of the existing generator's problems before taking
any action.
D. Quickly contact potential suppliers to determine availability of the new generator.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.96 Which of the following is MOST beneficial in an environment where time to market is critical?
A. Have selected suppliers use on-site consignment warehousing.
B. Develop two suppliers for every part to assure availability.
C. Computerize the quotation system via EDI.
D. Work jointly with a supplier on the design.
Answer: D

ISM examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.97 In which of the following methods of supplier performance rating is the supplier is rated as
"preferred," "neutral," or "unsatisfactory"?
A. Weighted-point plan.
B. Categorical plan.
C. Cost-ratio plan.
D. Benchmarking.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.98 Which of the following will LEAST accurately reflect the goals of a supplier performance rating
system?
A. Reduced rejects.
B. Reduced rework.
C. Reduced receipts.
D. Reduced warranty costs.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.99 Which of the following would define an organization that has various parts working well together in
the development of specifications and performance criteria, thereby avoiding duplication and loss of time?
A. A high degree of centralization.
B. A high degree of coordination.
C. A high degree of integration.
D. A high degree of induction.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.100 What is the MAIN purpose of the term "or equal" when a requisition uses a brand name as the
specification?
A. To allow for better quality.
B. To find possible alternatives.
C. To allow for the product to be made in-house.
D. To allow engineering to redefine the specifications.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.101 Which of the following is LEAST likely to result from a supplier dealing directly with several user
departments within XXXX.com?
A. Confusion and uncertainty.
B. Lower total acquisition costs.
C. Bureaucratic problems for purchasing.
D. Increased supplier knowledge about the organization.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.102 On which of the following are progress payments usually made? (Choose two.)
A. Very high dollar value purchases.
B. Construction contracts.
C. Systems contracts.
D. Blanket orders.
Answer: A, B

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.103 Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in a department's standard contract document for
service contracts?
A. Insurance and indemnification.
B. Liability clause.
C. Force majeure.
D. Comity.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.104 Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the Law of Agency, if a buyer acts outside his
actual authority but within what can reasonably be considered apparent authority?
A. The buyer's organization is without legal recourse against the buyer.
B. The seller generally has legal recourse against the buyer's organization.
C. The buyer's organization is free from all legal liability due to the action of its buyer.
D. The seller has legal recourse against the buyer for acting beyond the limit of his actual authority.
Answer: B

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.105 Which of the following is an element of the initial stage of a cost analysis?
A. Comparing historical costs.
B. Obtaining a cost breakdown.
C. Comparing previous prices.
D. Examining financial statements.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.106 When is a buyer bound by the supplier's acknowledgment terms?
A. When the supplier takes exception to the specific buyer's terms.
B. When the supplier fails to respond to the buyer's purchase order terms, but ships the material.
C. When the supplier acknowledges the buyer's purchase order by returning to the buyer the
acknowledgment copy of the purchase order set.
D. When the supplier sends an acknowledgment form insisting on the supplier's terms, and the buyer
accepts delivery.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.107 XXXX.com estimates that its new laboratory building will cost $3 million to construct. The purchasing
department issues a bid request for construction and receives four bids. The bid from Contractor A comes
in at $2.7 million. The bid from Contractor B is $4.8 million; from Contractor C it is $4.9 million; and from
Contractor D it is $5.0 million. What should be the purchasing department's next step?
A. Reject all bids, review the specifications, and rebid the job.
B. Award the contract to Contractor A, because it is the low bidder.
C. Award the contract to Contractor B, because it is the lowest of the three clustered bids, and apparently
Contractor A overlooked something.
D. Interview Contractor A to make sure it has properly understood the requirements of the bid request.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.108 In which of the following payment methods used in global sourcing, does the seller forward all
shipping documents, invoices, insurance certificates, and other appropriate documents, along with its
draft drawn on the buyer, through the seller's bank to the buyer's bank overseas?
A. Open account.
B. Sight draft collection.
C. Clean draft collection.
D. Confirmed letters of credit.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.109 Which of the following costs are NOT identified with the specific products or services of an
organization?
A. Variable costs.
B. Indirect costs.
C. Direct costs.
D. Fixed costs.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.110 In which of the following categories does a purchasing manager fall into according to the Law of
Agency?
A. A principal.
B. A special agent.
C. A change agent.
D. A general agent.
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.111 Which of the following should the role of legal counsel generally include in the preparation of a
contract?
A. Identifying purchaser's rights and remedies in the event the supplier breaches.
B. Notifying a contractor in writing of minor nonconformance.
C. Writing commercial and legal terms for the contract.
D. Assisting in establishing negotiating strategies.
Answer: C

ISM examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.112 Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a buyer to obtain legal review of RFQs
involving prospective contracts for the performance of services such as construction and maintenance?
A. To avoid antitrust implications.
B. To avoid potential bankruptcy proceedings.
C. To include implied warranty rights favorable to the buyer.
D. To protect the buyer, because the Uniform Commercial Code does not apply to such contracts.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.113 Which of the following is NOT a measure of the responsiveness of a supplier in state and local
government purchasing?
A. Meeting small, disadvantaged business requirements.
B. Complying with the buying agency's specifications.
C. Filling out the bid document correctly.
D. Providing required documentation.
Answer: A

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NO.114 When a customer places a purchase order with XXXX.com close to the need date, what is the MOST
appropriate course of action for the customer to take?
A. Call XXXX.com the promised ship date.
B. Ask XXXX.com to call 3 days prior to the promised shipping date.
C. Ask the receiving clerk to call XXXX.com if the materials are not received on the promised date.
D. Establish a follow-up file to call XXXX.com one week before the promised ship date.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.115 Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The prices of products produced by suppliers that produce single products tend to be lower.
B. The quality of a product that is produced by suppliers that produce single products tends to be higher.
C. Suppliers that produce single products tend to be more stable financially.
D. The delivery suppliers that produce single products tends to be faster.
Answer: A, B, D

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.116 Which of the following is NOT part of the competitive bidding process?
A. Expediting deliveries.
B. Awarding the contract.
C. Receiving and reviewing bids.
D. Preparing and reproducing specifications.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.117 You work as the purchasing manager at XXXX.com. You are attempting to source and qualify potential
bidders for a project. The project requires a highly technical scope of work. Which of the following factors
will be of the LEAST importance to your considerations?
A. Location
B. References
C. Financial stability
D. Previous experience
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.118 Which piece of legislation is designed to prevent well-financed itinerant contractors from successfully
bidding on and winning federal government contracts and then transporting low-wage workers from
distant points to displace local workers?
A. The Clayton Act.
B. The False Claims Act.
C. The Davis-Bacon Act.
D. The Robinson-Patman Act.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.119 Which of the following is NOT a good reason for maintaining records of purchases?
A. To provide a paper trail for internal and external auditors.
B. To maintain information for a legal defense in liability suits.
C. To provide information that the purchasing department needs in order to operate.
D. To eliminate the time required for requesting information from other departments.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.120 On which of the following would the evaluation of a supplier's ability to meet the requirements of a
proposed be based? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Price
B. Capacity
C. Past performance
D. Financial condition
Answer: B, C, D

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.121 What is MOST likely to be the current stage of the product development life cycle for a product that is
going through frequent changes in specifications, resulting in the obsolescence of many inventoried
items?
A. Growth.
B. Decline.
C. Maturity.
D. Introduction.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.122 In which of the following is an integrated information system is generally classified?
A. Direct.
B. Standard.
C. Overhead.
D. Semi-variable.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.123 Which of the following would be the LEAST important consideration in purchase requisitions?
A. Sales forecasts.
B. OEM considerations.
C. Production schedules.
D. Financial considerations.
Answer: B

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NO.124 Which of the following is the LEAST important consideration in preparing product specifications?
A. Competition of concepts.
B. Economical production.
C. Consumer acceptance.
D. Function.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.125 Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. A closed order file is LEAST likely to provide an audit trail.
B. A closed order file is LEAST likely to provide a reference for questions on past orders.
C. A closed order file is LEAST likely to provide historical records to guide future decisions.
D. A closed order file is LEAST likely to provide a record of both buyer and supplier performance.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.126 At which of the following times does the purchased raw material physically enters purchased goods
inventory in a manufacturing stockless inventory program?
A. Never, since it becomes work in progress or goods shipped.
B. Five days before it is needed.
C. One day before it is needed.
D. At the time of delivery.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.127 A purchaser at a research laboratory is working with scientists on a purchase agreement for a new
generation of chemical analytic instrumentation. There is general agreement that a new instrument of this
type can be made to perform to the extreme precision and sensitivity desired, but that such an instrument
does not at present exist. The engineers at a major supplier believe that they can achieve this new level of
precision with information given to them by the research laboratory
staff. The supplier requests a sizeable down payment for the order: 50% of total purchase cost of $1
million. In order to achieve the MOST benefit, how should the research laboratory defining its purchase
requirements?
A. In terms of brand-name specifications.
B. In terms of performance specifications.
C. In terms of industry standard specifications.
D. In terms of material composition specifications.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.128 Which of the following is the LEAST desirable method of handling costs for a contractor's supervision
in drafting contracts for cost reimbursable services?
A. Establishing budgets and monitoring variances.
B. Requiring all supervisory time to be included in overheads.
C. Allowing all supervisory time to be billed to the contract as needed.
D. Specifying the levels of supervision that may be charged to the contract.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.129 From which of the following are prices requested from in the second step of two-step bidding?
A. All suppliers submitting acceptable technical proposals in the first step.
B. The three suppliers submitting the best proposals in the first step.
C. All suppliers qualified to submit proposals in the first step.
D. All suppliers submitting proposals in the first step.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.130 Purchasing should clearly understand the intended use of a product in order to determine if the
description given in a purchase request is adequate and accurate. If there is any doubt, what should
purchasing management do?
A. Substitute a comparable item.
B. Refuse to process the request.
C. Request a better description from the user.
D. Revise the description to conform to market terminology.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.131 Which of the following is LEAST likely to require buyer visits to supplier plants during the qualification
process?
A. Critical Path Method.
B. Statistical Process Control.
C. Total Quality Management.
D. Just-In-Time Inventory Management.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.132 Which of the following involved is LEAST likely to be performed by purchasing?
A. Defining a competitive price range.
B. Checking availability and lead times.
C. Evaluating new materials and technologies.
D. Projecting market trends of materials and components.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.133 On which of the following would a change in a company's marketing plans or strategy have the
LEAST impact?
A. Material requirements.
B. Purchase requisitions.
C. Production plans.
D. Sales forecasts.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005   630-005

NO.134 Which of the following statements regarding the process of reviewing supplier samples and/or
demonstrations with user departments and functional departments such as quality, engineering, research,
and administration, are FALSE?
A. It increases the amount of time involved in making a buying decision.
B. It is an example of purchasing's role as a service function within the organization.
C. It reduces purchased prices by allowing purchasing to make the final buying decision.
D. It leads to improved quality because the supplier will have a better understanding of user requirements.
Answer: C

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.135 Which of the following are the LEAST important criteria a company would use in determining a list of
approved suppliers?
A. Price.
B. Service.
C. Quality.
D. Capacity.
E. Customer service.
Answer: E

certification ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.136 On which of the following contract provisions should a buyer insist to ensure that a supplier will meet
engineering specifications for a product?
A. An arbitration clause.
B. An acceptance test plan.
C. The indexing of price to inspection costs.
D. Discounts based on total purchases over a period of time.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.137 XXXX.com is planning to introduce a new line of clothing endorsed by a celebrity.
XXXX.com has determined that the direct cost per unit for manufacturing the clothing is $150; the right to
embroider the celebrity's name to the garment is $500,000; and the other overhead costs associated with
manufacturing total $50,000.
What would the cost of the celebrity's name generally be considered as?
A. A fixed cost.
B. A variable cost.
C. An implicit cost.
D. An opportunity cost.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.138 Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Direct costs increase as a function of product/service output.
B. Direct costs change as a basis for the allocation of overhead.
C. Direct costs decrease per unit as output rises.
D. None of the above
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.139 For its impact on which of the following should price variances of purchased materials be forecasted?
A. Cost of goods sold.
B. Inventory levels.
C. Supplier ratings.
D. Carrying costs.
Answer: B

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.140 Which of the following are NOT suitable recommendations for the purchase of chemical products
according to the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard?
A. Establishing a chemical quality control program.
B. Establishing a list of chemicals pre-approved for purchase.
C. Reducing the number of chemicals through standardization.
D. Purchasing alternative products that contain less hazardous chemicals.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.141 What does an implied warranty of merchantability mean?
A. Goods supplied will be free of apparent or hidden material defects.
B. Goods supplied will be of a quality comparable to that generally acceptable in the trade.
C. Goods supplied will be contained, packaged, and labeled as requested by the buyer.
D. Goods supplied will be in conformance to standards and specifications provided by the buyer.
Answer: B

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.142 XXXX.com has placed an order that called for delivery to be F.O.B. Shipping Point, with Freight
Allowed to Destination. On delivery the purchasing manager discovers that the material was damaged in
transit. What should the purchasing manager do?
A. File a claim with the transportation company for repair and replacement costs.
B. Notify the supplier and request that it file the claim and reship the material.
C. Have repairs made to the material and backcharge the supplier.
D. Refuse to accept the shipment and reorder the material.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.143 When should the "team" approach to supplier plant visits probably NOT be taken?
A. When the buyer plans to change production schedule documentation.
B. When the buyer plans to request changes in the supplier's quality levels.
C. When the buyer plans to change levels of expected production volumes.
D. When the buyer plans to make major changes in the complexity of delivered goods.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.144 Which of the following would NOT be considered in the least total cost (LTC) supplier selection
process?
A. Supplier goodwill and supplier balance sheet
B. Quality, on-time delivery, and service
C. Design and technical assistance
D. Price
Answer: A

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.145 Which of the following is in the correct sequence from first to last?
A. Analysis, survey, negotiation, experience.
B. Experience, negotiation, survey, analysis.
C. Survey, negotiation, analysis, experience.
D. Survey, analysis, negotiation, experience.
Answer: D

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.146 You work as a purchaser at XXXX.com. You are determining and evaluating financial strategies.
When will you decide to buy in advance due to anticipated price increases or shortages of a specific
commodity?
A. When the cost/benefit analyses indicates significant rate of return.
B. When the cost/benefit analyses indicates decrease in carrying cost.
C. When the cost/benefit analyses indicates lower total cost of ownership.
D. When the cost/benefit analyses indicates substantial purchase price variance.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.147 Which of the following should generally be included in the role of legal counsel in the purchaser's
administration of a contract?
A. Assisting in establishing negotiating strategies.
B. Writing commercial and legal terms for the contract.
C. Notifying suppliers in writing of minor nonconformance.
D. Identifying purchaser's rights and remedies in the event the supplier breaches.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.148 Which of the following would provide the MOST valuable insights into a supplier's ability to perform?
A. Site visits.
B. Annual reports.
C. Trade literature.
D. Sales representatives.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.149 Which piece of legislation is designed to prevent monopolies by outlawing discrimination in pricing
due to conspiracies or combinations that act in restraint of trade?
A. The Clayton Act.
B. The False Claims Act.
C. The Davis-Bacon Act.
D. The Robinson-Patman Act.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.150 Which of the following provides the MOST difficulty in analyzing proposals for cost reimbursable
service contracts?
A. Material costs.
B. Direct labor costs.
C. Supervisory costs.
D. Transportation costs.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.151 Which of the following are NOT accepted methods of payment for goods procured internationally?
A. Payment upon receipt of documented evidence of shipment.
B. Payment after receipt and inspection.
C. Letters of credit.
D. C.O.D.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.152 Which of the following would be the LEAST affected if the purchasing department at XXXX.com is
given insufficient time to procure a needed item or service?
A. Special production runs.
B. Competitive position.
C. Negotiation edge.
D. Efficiency.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   630-005

NO.153 You work as a seller for XXXX.com. You hear a rumor that a major competitor is going out of
business due to a weakening financial condition. You share this information with your customers, adding
that the competitor's financial problems are causing major quality problems in their operations. What
could the competitor sue you and XXXX.com for, if these claims are not based on fact?
A. Libel.
B. Bribery.
C. Disparagement.
D. Breach of trust.
E. Misrepresentation.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.154 You work as a buyer at XXXX.com. You place an online order containing only price, quantity, and
description. You do NOT have a written contract with the supplier. The parts fail inspection, and the
supplier claims it is under no obligation for the parts. What would be your FIRST line of action in this
situation?
A. Accept the parts and write a contract covering the supplier's obligations in future online transactions.
B. State that an implied warranty for merchantability is applicable to the parts.
C. Use a manual order system for all future orders with the supplier.
D. Accept the parts with no further comment.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.155 Which of the following statements is the LEAST accurate?
A. Preferred suppliers find ways to enhance their products.
B. Preferred suppliers emphasize acquisition costs over total costs.
C. Preferred suppliers warn the customer in advance of factors that may affect the purchaser's
operations.
D. Preferred suppliers take the initiative in suggesting better ways to serve the customer.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.156 Which of the following statements MOST accurately describes an expediting call rather than a
follow-up call?
A. A call to confirm that a supplier shipped an item on time.
B. A call to ensure shipment on an originally promised shipping date.
C. A call to confirm the expected completion date of an important custom component.
D. A call to request that a supplier ship an item sooner than the originally promised date.
Answer: D

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.157 According to which of the following will the type of evaluation required to determine a supplier's
capability vary?
A. The nature of the purchase to be made only.
B. The dollar value of the purchase to be made only
C. Both the nature of the purchase to be made and the dollar value of the purchase to be made.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.158 On which of the following is the following statement based?
A "material breach" on the part of the federal government does not preclude the contractor from
continuing its work on behalf of the government, pending resolution of any request for relief, claim, appeal,
or action arising under the contract.
A. Termination clause.
B. Davis-Bacon Act.
C. Disputes clause.
D. Clayton Act.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.159 When may a letter of intent be used prior to issuance of a more complete purchase order or contract?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. To cope with fluctuating market conditions or critical shortages.
B. To purchase material or equipment with a lengthy lead time.
C. To obtain advance release of production items or services.
D. To avoid near-term increases.
Answer: A, B, C, D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.160 When may federal government contractors request reimbursement for costs incurred?
A. When payments have been booked on an accrual basis.
B. When payments have been audited by the fiscal officer.
C. When payments have been made to any subcontractors.
D. When payments have been approved by the contracting officer.
Answer: C

ISM examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.161 For which of the following is credit card purchases the MOST appropriate?
A. Periodic services.
B. Commodity items.
C. Low-dollar purchases.
D. Low-volume purchases.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.162 Which of the following do NOT characterize operational needs that lead to a decision to buy?
A. High dollar value.
B. User prioritization.
C. Strategic significance.
D. Competitive advantage.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.163 Which of the following is NOT used to measure a supplier's responsibility in public purchasing?
A. Price.
B. Past performance.
C. Financial condition.
D. Technical organization.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.164 You work as a purchaser at XXXX.com. You received two bids for the supply of materials. A third
supplier calls before the due date and requests an extension of time. What should you do?
A. Refuse to grant the extension for any reason.
B. Grant the extension if the supplier can prove that it is a small and disadvantaged supplier.
C. Grant the extension if the reasons are justifiable, and inform all other suppliers of the extension.
D. Grant the extension, because the purchaser should have at least 3 bids in order to have true
competition.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.165 Buyers are instructed to use specifications to describe needed products in terms of design and
performance characteristics. Which of the following is this LEAST likely to result in?
A. Lower costs.
B. Brand name bias.
C. More competition.
D. New product awareness.
Answer: B

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.166 Which of the following should a buyer FIRST develop to counter continuing price increases of a
specialty chemical?
A. A tough, "hold-the-line" bargaining position.
B. A trend chart based on the Consumer Price Index.
C. A cost model to better understand the supplier's price.
D. In-house capability to produce the specialty chemical.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.167 Which of the following should be considered when evaluating service in price analysis? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Timeliness of deliveries.
B. Dun & Bradstreet rating.
C. Supplier technical/value analysis assistance.
D. Supplier willingness to make satisfactory adjustments for claims by the buyer.
Answer: A, C, D

certification ISM   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.168 Which of the following is NOT a suitable solution to the "classic" small order problem?
A. Blanket orders.
B. Competitive bidding.
C. Purchase order drafts.
D. The electronic transmission of orders.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.169 Which of the following are NOT required on a contract for the purchase of hazardous/regulated
materials?
A. A bill of material.
B. The method of disposal.
C. Material Safety Data Sheets.
D. The impact fees for disposal.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.170 You work as the purchasing manager at XXXX.com. An internal auditor's at XXXX.com has completed
an audit in which a sample of purchase orders was evaluated. In his report, the internal auditor states that
some 40% of the total purchase orders were for less than $500, and that of this 40%, the centralized
purchasing department bought 80% of the items locally. These items were all shipped or delivered to the
central warehouse for the receiving function to take place, and then delivered to the various field crew
locations. You want to continue to collect purchasing data and reduce the administrative cost of individual
purchases.
Which of the following would be your BEST course of action?
A. Establish blanket open-supplier orders.
B. Implement a procurement card system.
C. Decentralize the purchasing function.
D. Issue purchase orders electronically.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.171 Which of the following are TRUE?
A. When goods are shipped "F.O.B. Origin or Factory, Freight Prepaid and Added," the buyer pays freight
charges.
B. When goods are shipped "F.O.B. Origin or Factory, Freight Prepaid and Added," the buyer bears freight
charges.
C. When goods are shipped "F.O.B. Origin or Factory, Freight Prepaid and Added," the buyer collects
freight charges.
D. When goods are shipped "F.O.B. Origin or Factory, Freight Prepaid and Added," the buyer invoices
freight charges.
Answer: B

ISM examen   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.172 Which of the following should be established in writing in order to avoid any confusion as to what
event will trigger payment to a supplier?
A. When the requested work must be completed.
B. The financial viability of the supplier.
C. Mutually acceptable criteria.
D. Penalty clauses.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.173 Which of the following best describes a policy that limits the amount a senior buyer can spend on a
single purchase order?
A. Limits of authority.
B. Purchasing management control.
C. Accounting requisition control policy.
D. The checking of large-dollar requisitions for proper authority.
Answer: A

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.174 Under which of the following conditions can bids be rejected in the public sector?
A. Failure to sign the bid.
B. Failure to submit design specifications.
C. Failure to provide adequate cost analysis.
D. Failure to respond to previous solicitations.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.175 Which of the following is the LEAST desirable contract dispute resolution option?
A. Renegotiation.
B. Compromise.
C. Reformation.
D. Litigation.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.176 Upon which of the following does the type of evaluation required to determine supplier capability
depend?
A. On only the complexity of the purchase to be made.
B. On only the purchaser's knowledge of the firms being considered.
C. On both the complexity of the purchase to be made and the purchaser's knowledge of the firms being
considered.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.177 Which of the following attributes of purchasing personnel is affected by requisitions from internal
customers?
A. Familiarity with purchasing policy.
B. Experience.
C. Authority.
D. Job title.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.178 Which of the following is the MAIN advantage of systems contracting?
A. The organization is not legally committed to purchase.
B. Systems contracting reduces the cost of rejected material.
C. Systems contracting reduces the cost of carrying inventory.
D. Systems contracting reduces the costs of receiving and handling.
Answer: C

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.179 Which of the following statements BEST describes "quality at the source"?
A. The organization provides workers with the tools of in-process quality assurance.
B. The organization increases the number of work-in-process inspections.
C. The organization prescribes quality requirements to the workers.
D. The organization stops incoming inspection.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.180 Which of the following statements regarding the learning curve is FALSE?
A. The learning curve is basically the same as a progress or improvement curve.
B. The learning curve depicts an empirical relationship between the number of units produced and the
labor hours required to produce them.
C. The learning curve is most useful in production operations that exhibit nonuniform rates of
improvement.
D. The learning curve reflects not only production learning but also management learning.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.181 Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a problem in the inspection and acceptance of a contract
for services?
A. Determining the price to be paid.
B. Determining where responsibility lies.
C. Verifying compliance in contractual areas.
D. Establishing specific procedures and systems.
Answer: A

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.182 Which of the following would a purchaser NOT consider in evaluating the direct costs of producing a
product?
A. Direct labor rates.
B. Labor estimates.
C. Overhead rates.
D. Material.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.183 estInside.com is planning to introduce a new line of clothing endorsed by a celebrity.
XXXX.com has determined that the direct cost per unit for manufacturing the clothing is $150; the right to
embroider the celebrity's name to the garment is $500,000; and the other overhead costs associated with
manufacturing total $50,000.
What would the cost of the fabric used in the production of the garments generally be considered as?
A. A sunk cost.
B. A variable cost.
C. An implicit cost.
D. An opportunity cost.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.184 What should the purchasing department do when MIS requests a full use copy of a piece of software
for evaluation?
A. Have return shipping costs paid by the supplier
B. Execute an evaluation license.
C. Issue a purchase order.
D. Confirm receipt.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.185 XXXX.com has a contract with Road Haulers, Ltd. to dispose of toxic material at a site in New Orleans.
However, Road Haulers, Ltd. decides to use a site in Dallasinstead. The site at Dallas is a cheaper but
disreputable source. Who has primary liability in this situation?
A. XXXX.com.
B. Road Haulers, Ltd.
C. The site at New Orleans.
D. The site at Dallas.
Answer: A

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.186 Which of the following publication provides the MOST complete data about a company's positions in
the market and their comparative strengths within their industry?
A. TRY US.
B. Moody's Industrial Manual.
C. Standard and Poor's Register.
D. The Thomas Register of American Manufacturers.
Answer: B

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.187 You work as a purchaser at XXXX.com. Your brother works as an engineer for a major supplier for
XXXX.com. Your brother asks you for input on a new product line that his company is developing. The
product is quite similar to one that XXXX.com currently buys from another company. Which of the
following is the PRIMARY ethical issue that arises in this situation?
A. Fraud
B. Bribery
C. Nepotism
D. Conflict of interest
Answer: D

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.188 Which of the following is NOT a goal of direct release systems?
A. Improved usage forecasting.
B. Reduced paperwork for purchasing.
C. Lower purchase order transaction costs.
D. Increased accountability of the selected supplier.
Answer: A

certification ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.189 Which of the following would NOT be found in a materials budget for a special product?
A. Indirect costs.
B. Cost variances.
C. Usage variances.
D. Direct material costs.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005

NO.190 Which of the following is an additional cost when buying internationally?
A. Customs
B. Insurance
C. Packaging
D. Transportation
Answer: A

certification ISM   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.191 Which of the following is the BIGGEST problem with the use of supplier inputs into specification and
work statement development?
A. A lack of technical or technological expertise among supplier personnel.
B. The inability of a supplier to comply with the time constraint imposed by the buyer.
C. The potential for the supplier to ignore quality considerations even when requested by the buyer.
D. The potential for a supplier to structure the specifications in a manner that prevents competition.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.192 Which of the following is the LEAST adaptable to the life cycle costing method?
A. Window air conditioners.
B. Hand-held calculators.
C. Hot water heaters.
D. Light bulbs.
Answer: B

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.193 Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Purchase orders are considered to be "offers" provided they are acknowledged in writing.
B. Purchase orders are either "offers" or "acceptances," depending upon individual terms and conditions.
C. Purchase orders are considered to be acceptances of offers made by suppliers whether or not
confirmed in writing.
D. Purchase orders issued as "confirmations" can be issued with slightly different terms and conditions
from the basic agreement order.
Answer: B

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005   630-005

NO.194 In which of the following dispute resolution methods is a dispute between buyer and seller turned over
to a third party with neither buyer nor seller relinquishes their legal rights?
A. Litigation
B. Mediation
C. Arbitration
D. Reformation
Answer: B

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005 examen

NO.195 In which of the following payment methods used in global sourcing, does the seller present only its
draft on the buyer to its bank for collection, while the shipping and other documents are sent directly to the
buyer?
A. Open account.
B. Sight draft collection.
C. Clean draft collection.
D. Confirmed letters of credit.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005 examen   certification 630-005

NO.196 Which of the following support(s) the utilization of a supplier quality rating system? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. The identification of quality as an important measure of supplier performance.
B. The availability of comparisons between suppliers of similar commodities.
C. The provision of a ready reference for future procurement.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A, B, C

ISM examen   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen

NO.197 Which of the following represents the BEST way to prevent one or more suppliers' technological
innovations from being locked out of the buyer's organization as a result of reducing a supplier base?
A. Occasional rebidding to several suppliers.
B. Periodic purchasing department review of the supplier base.
C. The use of a multifunctional team that includes technical functions.
D. Allowing user functions to maintain direct contact with supply competitors.
Answer: C

certification ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.198 Which of the following is NOT referred to in specifications?
A. Purchase descriptions.
B. Quality requirements.
C. Product descriptions.
D. Purchase conditions.
Answer: D

ISM examen   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.199 Which of the following BEST defines the concept of "sharp" buying practices?
A. Negotiating with more than one supplier.
B. Developing a supplier alliance for strategic materials.
C. Misleading a supplier about the actual quantity that the buyer intends to purchase.
D. Reporting verified information about a supplier's financial problems to management.
Answer: C

ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   certification 630-005

NO.200 Which of the following is MOST suitable for a low-cost, high-volume item that is used by only one
department within the organization but is used continuously at varying rates and is requisitioned
frequently?
A. EDI
B. Purchase order
C. Bill of material
D. Systems contract
Answer: D

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.201 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a purchase order contract that includes the
term "C.I.F"?
A. B. The title transfers to the buyer on receipt of goods.
B. The cost of transportation is included in the price.
C. The seller makes all arrangements for shipment.
D. The shipment is insured against loss or damage.
Answer: A

ISM   certification 630-005   630-005

NO.202 Which of the following BEST describes improving quality during the manufacturing process?
A. The firm is meeting the quality expectations of the customer.
B. The quality of the product will exceed that of competitors.
C. The firm is attempting to meet its quality objectives.
D. Additional final quality inspectors will be required.
Answer: C

ISM   certification 630-005   certification 630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.203 Which of the following makes the final decision in the administrative protest/appeal process
established by the Model Procurement Code for State and Local Governments?
A. The courts.
B. Arbitration.
C. Mediation.
D. An appeals board.
E. The purchasing department.
Answer: D

ISM   630-005 examen   630-005

NO.204 Which of the following is typically accounted for by demonstration equipment?
A. Purchase order only.
B. Evaluation agreement only.
C. Purchase order and Evaluation agreement only.
D. Purchase order, Evaluation agreement, and Lease.
Answer: C

ISM examen   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.205 Which of the following are NOT required items in computing total cost in capital equipment
procurement analysis?
A. Production inventory investment.
B. Installation and start-up costs.
C. Warranty considerations.
D. Performance guarantees.
Answer: A

certification ISM   630-005   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.206 You work as the purchasing manager at XXXX.com. The vice president of XXXX.com requests that
you visit a friend who is the marketing manager of a company attempting to sell XXXX.com its product line.
You find the marketing manager's line of products to be excellent but overpriced and tell him so. The
marketing manager asks you to provide him with competitive prices, which he states he will meet. Which
of the following is the MOST professional course of action you could follow?
A. Refuse to deal with the marketing manager at all, because he attempted to use influential tactics.
B. Provide the competitive prices and agree to switch XXXX.com's orders to the marketing manager's
firm.
C. Provide the competitive prices and agree to switch XXXX.com's orders to the marketing manager's firm
if he offers better prices.
D. Refuse to reveal competitive prices, but offer the marketing manager an opportunity to bid
competitively for XXXX.com's next requirements.
Answer: D

certification ISM   630-005   certification 630-005   630-005 examen   630-005   630-005

NO.207 Which of the following are the LEAST important results to measure each month using a supplier
performance rating system? (Choose two.)
A. Price.
B. Quality.
C. Delivery.
D. Customer service.
Answer: A, D

ISM   630-005   630-005 examen

NO.208 Which of the following methods is often used by government purchasing staff to compile lists of
suppliers but would NOT be used by for-profit companies?
A. Internet search results.
B. Formal advertising in newspapers.
C. Attendance at industry trade shows.
D. Standard published industrial directories.
Answer: B

ISM   630-005   630-005

NO.209 Which of the following are provided by a preferred supplier list? (Choose two.)
A. A guide for supplier selection.
B. Enhanced supplier confidence.
C. The ability to target costs with the supplier.
D. The ability to target quality with the supplier.
Answer: A, B

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